Sec. 24.20.030. Term of membership.
 (a) Members serve for the duration of the legislature during which they are appointed.

 (b) When a member of the council files a declaration of candidacy for an elective office other than that of member of either house of the legislature, and the member has not resigned from membership on the council, the member’s council membership terminates on the date of filing.




Sec. 24.20.040. Vacancies.
When a vacancy occurs in the statutory or appointive membership of the council, the presiding officer of the house incurring the vacancy shall fill the vacancy within 30 days. If the office of the president of the senate or speaker of the house of representatives becomes vacant and a vacancy occurs among the appointed members of the council, the remaining council members from the house incurring the vacancy shall appoint a new member. A legislator appointed to fill a vacancy shall be a member of the same political party as the member vacating the seat, when possible.

Sec. 24.20.050. Executive director and staff.
The council hires an executive director and determines the director’s salary. The executive director shall serve as the executive officer for the council in the accomplishment of its functions through the Legislative Affairs Agency. The executive director serves at the direction and at the pleasure of the council. The executive director is authorized to employ and determine the compensation of the members of the professional and clerical staffs of the agency within the limitation of the budget approved by the council. The executive director and the members of the professional staff shall maintain the integrity of the council’s functions and services on behalf of the legislative branch by refraining from joining or supporting any partisan political organization, faction, or activity that would tend to undermine the essential nonpartisan nature of their functions and services. However, this section does not restrict the executive director or members of the professional staff from expressing private opinion, registering, or voting.

Sec. 24.20.055. Information systems.
The executive director of the Legislative Affairs Agency shall establish information systems guidelines and prepare a short-range and long-range information systems plan for the legislative branch. The guidelines and plan must be adapted to the special needs of the legislative branch as determined by the Alaska Legislative Council and, when it is in the agency’s best interest, consistent with the telecommunications information guidelines and plan adopted by the commissioner of administration under AS 44.21.350 — 44.21.390.

Sec. 24.20.060. Powers.
The legislative council has the power
     (1) to organize and adopt rules for the conduct of its business;

     (2) to hold public hearings, administer oaths, issue subpoenas, compel the attendance of witnesses and production of papers, books, accounts, documents, and testimony, and to have the deposition of witnesses taken in a manner prescribed by court rule or law for taking depositions in civil actions when consistent with the powers and duties assigned to the council by AS 24.20.010 — 24.20.140;

     (3) to call upon all state officials, agencies, and institutions to give full cooperation to the council and its executive director by collecting and furnishing information, conducting studies, and making recommendations;

     (4) in addition to providing the administrative services required for the operation of the legislative branch,
          (A) to provide the technical staff assistance in research, reporting, drafting, and counseling requested by standing, interim, and special committees and spot research and drafting services for individual members in conformity with law and legislative rules;

          (B) to conduct a continuing program for the revision and publication of the acts of the legislature;

          (C) to execute a program for the oversight of the administration and construction of laws by state agencies and the courts through regulations, opinions, and rulings;

          (D) to operate and maintain the state legislative reference library;

          (E) to do all things necessary to carry out legislative directives and law, and the duties set out in the uniform rules of the legislature;

          (F) to sue in the name of the legislature during the interim between sessions if authorized by majority vote of the full membership of the council;

     (5) to exercise control and direction over all legislative space, supplies, and equipment and permanent legislative help between legislative sessions; the exercise of control over legislative space is subject to AS 36.30.080(c) if the exercise involves the rent or lease of facilities, and to AS 36.30.085 if the exercise involves the acquisition of facilities by lease-purchase or lease-financing agreement;

     (6) to produce, publish, distribute, and to contract for the printing of reports, memoranda, and other materials it finds necessary to the accomplishment of its work;

     (7) to take appropriate action for the preconvening and post-session work of each legislative session including the employment one week in advance of each session of not more than 10 temporary legislative employees; the continuing employment of the temporary legislative employees is subject to legislative approval when the session convenes;

     (8) to establish a legislative internship program on a cooperative basis with the University of Alaska that will provide for the assignment of interns to standing committees of each house of the legislature during regular sessions of the legislature; and

     (9) to establish reasonable fees for services and materials provided by the Legislative Affairs Agency to entities outside of the legislative branch of state government and charges for collecting the fees; all fees and charges collected under this paragraph shall be deposited into the general fund.




Sec. 24.20.061. Administrative services for legislature.
All administrative services necessary to the operation of the legislature during and between sessions are provided by the legislative council. These services include procurement, storage, and maintenance of all supplies and equipment; interim control of legislative space; fiscal and personnel services except for the legislative budget and audit committee; supervision of duplicating, distributing, and mailing services; and budget preparation.

Sec. 24.20.062. Legislative internship program.
A legislative internship program established by the legislative council under AS 24.20.060(8) shall provide that
     (1) the University of Alaska provide academic support and credit to the program;

     (2) students enrolled and in good standing at any accredited postsecondary educational institution who have successfully completed at least two years of study are eligible to participate in the program;

     (3) interns will be selected by a committee composed of members of the legislature appointed by the legislative council and representatives of the university appointed by the university;

     (4) interns will be selected on the basis of their experience and interest in subjects which the legislative council feels are likely to be considered during a legislative session;

     (5) legislative interns are entitled to receive academic credit and payment of $30 for each day of participation in the program during the legislative session.




Sec. 24.20.065. Examination of regulations and opinions.
 (a) The legislative council shall annually examine administrative regulations, published opinions of state and federal courts and of the Department of Law, and final decisions adopted under AS 44.62 (Administrative Procedure Act) that rely on state statutes or the common law of the state to determine if
     (1) the courts and agencies are properly implementing legislative purposes;

     (2) there are court or agency expressions of dissatisfaction with state statutes or the common law of the state;

     (3) the opinions, decisions, or regulations indicate unclear or ambiguous statutes;

     (4) the courts have modified or revised the common law of the state.

 (b) The legislative council shall prepare a comprehensive report of the annual examination with recommendations and, at the start of each regular session, notify the legislature that the report is available.




Sec. 24.20.070. Revision of statutes.
 (a) The legislature may direct the council to revise the laws of the state in the form of a bulk formal revision. At the direction of the legislature and within the limit of appropriations made, the council may enter into contracts for the printing, annotating, indexing, and distribution of a revision of the laws of the state. The council receives sufficient copies of a revision for exchange with other states and jurisdictions. A revision prepared by the council under authority of this section shall be referred to the legislature for enactment or adoption.

 (b) Statute revision is a continuing responsibility of the council. The general and permanent acts of each regular and special session of the legislature shall be integrated with and published as annual supplements to or replacement pamphlets for the Alaska Statutes.




Sec. 24.20.075. Alaska Code Revision Commission. [Repealed, § 33 ch 23 SLA 1995.]
Sec. 24.20.080. Intergovernmental cooperation.
The council may encourage and arrange conferences with officials of other states and nations and of other units of government and propose cooperation between this state and other states and nations. The council constitutes the Alaska Commission on Interstate Cooperation in participating in and carrying out the programs of the Council of State Governments as they apply to Alaska. The chairman of the council serves as chairman of the commission.

Sec. 24.20.090. Assignment of projects.
The council may be assigned projects or subjects for study, reporting, or drafting. Assignment shall be by resolution. The council may determine a schedule of priorities for these and other assignments or requests based on feasibility, time, and the availability of funds and staff.

Sec. 24.20.100. Research and drafting services for legislators.
Members of the legislature may utilize the research and bill drafting services of the Legislative Affairs Agency. Requests by members of the legislature are confidential. Staff services for members of the legislature shall be accomplished subject only to the priority of assignments determined by the council.

Sec. 24.20.105. Review of proposed regulations.

Sec. 24.20.110. Meetings.
The legislative council may meet during sessions of the legislature and during intervals between sessions at such times and places inside the state as the chairman may determine. The council shall meet immediately after the appointment of its membership at the first regular session of each legislature for purposes of organization. Minutes of each meeting shall be kept. One-half of the membership constitutes a quorum to do business. Members may receive, for the minimum time required to get to and from meetings and while attending meetings, the same travel fare and per diem allowances provided by law for members of the legislature when attending sessions.

Sec. 24.20.120. Reports.
The council shall prepare a summary report of its findings and recommendations for each legislature and notify the legislature that the report is available. The council shall, from time to time, submit memorandum reports to the legislature on matters referred to it or coming before it. Bills supporting council recommendations may be filed or prefiled in accordance with the uniform rules of the legislature. Reports released by the council are public and may be made available at a reasonable cost.

Sec. 24.20.130. Budgets.
The council shall submit a budget of its anticipated needs for each fiscal year to the finance committees of the legislature. The executive director shall annually submit an estimated budget to the governor for information purposes in the preparation of the executive budget. The council staff shall also assist, as needed, in preparing a budget of the anticipated annual needs of the legislature.

Sec. 24.20.132. Legislative budget and expenses.
The estimate of operating expenses for the legislature shall be included in the annual budget submitted by the legislative council. A summary total by major item shall be submitted by the council to the governor for information purposes in the preparation of the executive budget. A detailed budget document shall be submitted to the house and senate finance committees. All disbursements from legislative appropriations shall be certified by the bonded certifying officer designated by the council.

Article 2. Legislative Budget and Audit Committee.
Sec. 24.20.140. Appropriations.
 (a) Appropriations for carrying out AS 24.20.010 — 24.20.140 shall be set out in the appropriation bill authorizing operating expenditures submitted to the legislature under AS 37.07.020(a)(2) or other bills as may be necessary. The council may direct the executive director to transfer amounts from one appropriation to another if the transfer is considered necessary to accomplish the work of the council. The council may not exceed the total amount of the authorized appropriation. All expenditures of the council are subject to an independent audit that shall be made annually.

 (b) In addition to transfers under (a) of this section, the council may direct the executive director to transfer amounts from any appropriation to an office, agency, or committee in the legislative branch to an appropriation for another office, agency, or committee in the legislative branch. A transfer under this subsection may only be made with the written approval of the head of the legislative office or agency or the chair of the committee to which the appropriation was originally made, and the amount transferred from that appropriation may not exceed the amount indicated in the written approval.




Sec. 24.20.150. [Repealed, § 1 ch 95 SLA 1971.]
Sec. 24.20.151. Legislative Budget and Audit Committee established.
The Legislative Budget and Audit Committee is established as a permanent interim committee of the legislature. The establishment of the committee recognizes the need of the legislature for full-time technical assistance in accomplishing the fiscal analysis, budget review, and post-audit functions.

Sec. 24.20.156. Purposes.
The purposes of the Legislative Budget and Audit Committee include
     (1) monitoring and reporting
          (A) the performance of the agencies of the state that perform lending or investment functions;

          (B) the extent to which the performance of these agencies has contributed to the fiscal, financial, economic, and social improvement of the state and its citizens;

          (C) the extent to which these agencies and the executive have prepared and coordinated short-term and long-term economic, fiscal, investment, and financial planning;

     (2) holding these agencies accountable to statutory intent in their performance by recommending, where appropriate, changes in policy to the agencies or changes in legislation to the legislature;

     (3) annually reviewing the extent of capitalization of the investment funds of the state and alternative investment policy for the general fund surplus and recommending needed legislation.




Sec. 24.20.160. [Repealed, § 1 ch 95 SLA 1971.]
Sec. 24.20.161. Membership.
The Legislative Budget and Audit Committee is composed of 10 members: the chairmen of the senate and house finance committees; one member selected from each of the senate and house finance committees and appointed by the president of the senate and the speaker of the house, respectively; and three members appointed from each house by the respective presiding officer. The chairman of the finance committee may choose not to serve on the committee. If this occurs, the presiding officer of the appropriate house shall appoint a replacement from the finance committee. The membership from each house shall include at least one member from each of the two major political parties. The committee shall select its own chairman.

Sec. 24.20.165. Alternate members.
The Legislative Budget and Audit Committee shall have two alternate members in addition to the members designated in AS 24.20.161. The president of the senate shall appoint one alternate member from the senate finance committee and the speaker of the house shall appoint one alternate member from the house finance committee. The alternate members shall serve on the committee when a meeting of the committee has been called and the chairman determines that there will not be enough members in attendance at the meeting to provide a quorum. While serving as alternates, the alternate members have the same duties and responsibilities as committee members appointed under AS 24.20.161, and they are entitled to the same travel and per diem allowances.

Sec. 24.20.170. [Repealed, § 1 ch 95 SLA 1971.]
Sec. 24.20.171. Organization of committee; term of membership.
 (a) The committee shall be organized within 10 days after the organization of each legislature. Members serve for the duration of the legislature during which they are appointed.

 (b) When a member of the committee files a declaration of candidacy for an elective office other than that of member of either house of the legislature, and the member has not resigned from membership on the committee, the member’s committee membership terminates on the date of filing.




Sec. 24.20.180. [Repealed, § 1 ch 95 SLA 1971.]
Sec. 24.20.181. Vacancies.
When a vacancy occurs in the statutory or appointive membership of the committee, the presiding officer of the house incurring the vacancy shall choose a successor. If the office of the president of the senate or speaker of the house of representatives becomes vacant and a vacancy from the affected house occurs among the membership of the committee, the remaining committee members from the house incurring the vacancy shall appoint a new member.

Sec. 24.20.190. [Repealed, § 1 ch 95 SLA 1971.]
Sec. 24.20.191. Meetings.
The budget and audit committee may meet during sessions of the legislature and during the interim between sessions at such times and places in the state as the chairman may determine. Members may receive, for the minimum time required to get to and from meetings and for the period while attending meetings, the same travel and per diem allowances provided by law for members of the legislature when attending sessions, except that members of the committee receive no per diem during legislative sessions other than the per diem allowance paid to other members of the legislature.

Sec. 24.20.200. [Repealed, § 1 ch 95 SLA 1971.]
Sec. 24.20.201. Powers.
 (a) The Legislative Budget and Audit Committee has the power to
     (1) organize, adopt rules for the conduct of its business, and prescribe procedures for the comprehensive fiscal analysis, budget review, and post-audit functions;

     (2) hold public hearings, administer oaths, issue subpoenas, compel the attendance of witnesses and production of papers, books, accounts, documents, and testimony, and have the deposition of witnesses taken in a manner prescribed by court rule or law for taking depositions in civil actions;

     (3) require all state officials and agencies of state government to give full cooperation to the committee or its staff in assembling and furnishing requested information;

     (4) review revenue projections, state agency appropriation requests, the expenditure of state funds, including the relationship between state agency program accomplishments and legislative intent, and the fiscal policies and procedures of state government;

     (5) review and approve proposed changes to agency authorized budgets as provided in AS 37.07 (Executive Budget Act);

     (6) make recommendations concerning appropriations, their expenditure, and the fiscal policies and procedures of state government to the governor when appropriate, and to the legislature;

     (7) prepare and distribute reports, memoranda, or other necessary materials;

     (8) sue in the name of the legislature during the interim between sessions if authorized by majority vote of the full membership of the committee;

     (9) [Repealed, § 7 ch 67 SLA 2003.]
     (10) make recommendations to the legislature and to agencies of the state that perform lending or investment functions concerning the structure and operating practices of the agencies;

     (11) enter into and enforce all contracts necessary or desirable for the functions of the committee;

     (12) provide for annual post audits of the Alaska Housing Finance Corporation, the Alaska Aerospace Corporation, and the Alaska Industrial Development and Export Authority.

 (b) Nothing in this chapter authorizes the referral by the presiding officer of legislation to the committee at regular or special sessions of the legislature.

 (c) The Legislative Budget and Audit Committee may delegate the powers authorized by (a)(2) of this section to the legislative fiscal analyst and the legislative auditor.




Sec. 24.20.206. Duties.
The Legislative Budget and Audit Committee shall
     (1) annually review the long-range operating plans of all agencies of the state that perform lending or investment functions;

     (2) review periodic reports from all agencies of the state that perform lending or investment functions;

     (3) prepare a complete report of investment programs, plans, performance, and policies of all agencies of the state that perform lending or investment functions and notify the legislature on or before the first day of each regular session that the report is available;

     (4) in conjunction with the finance committee of each house, recommend annually to the legislature the investment policy for the general fund surplus and for the income from the permanent fund;

     (5) provide for an annual post audit and annual operational and performance evaluation of the Alaska Permanent Fund Corporation investments and investment programs;

     (6) provide for an annual operational and performance evaluation of the Alaska Housing Finance Corporation and the Alaska Industrial Development and Export Authority; the performance evaluation must include, but is not limited to, a comparison of the effect on various sectors of the economy by public and private lending, the effect on resident and nonresident employment, the effect on real wages, and the effect on state and local operating and capital budgets of the programs of the Alaska Housing Finance Corporation and the Alaska Industrial Development and Export Authority;

     (7) provide assistance to the trustees of the trust established in AS 37.14.400 — 37.14.450 in carrying out their duties under AS 37.14.415.




Sec. 24.20.209. Records.
The Legislative Budget and Audit Committee shall keep a complete file of all reports presented to it and all reports presented by it to the legislature or to a legislative committee.

Sec. 24.20.210. [Repealed, § 1 ch 95 SLA 1971.]
Sec. 24.20.211. Legislative finance division.
The legislative finance division is established as a permanent staff agency responsible to the Legislative Budget and Audit Committee for performance of fiscal analysis and budget review functions.

Sec. 24.20.220. [Repealed, § 1 ch 95 SLA 1971.]
Sec. 24.20.221. Staff.
 (a) The committee shall hire and determine the salary of the legislative fiscal analyst who shall serve both at the direction and pleasure of the committee. The fiscal analyst shall serve as head of the finance division and, within the limits of the budget approved by the committee, shall employ and determine the compensation of the professional and clerical staff of the division.

 (b) The fiscal analyst and members of the professional and clerical staff may not join or support a partisan political organization. This prohibition does not prevent the fiscal analyst or members of the staff from joining social organizations, expressing private opinion, registering as to party, or voting.




Sec. 24.20.230. [Repealed, § 1 ch 95 SLA 1971.]
Sec. 24.20.231. Duties.
The legislative finance division shall
     (1) analyze the budget and appropriation requests of each department, institution, bureau, board, commission, or other agency of state government;

     (2) analyze the revenue requirements of the state;

     (3) provide the finance committees of the legislature with comprehensive budget review and fiscal analysis services;

     (4) cooperate with the office of management and budget in establishing a comprehensive system for state budgeting and financial management as set out in AS 37.07 (Executive Budget Act);

     (5) complete studies and prepare reports, memoranda, or other materials as directed by the Legislative Budget and Audit Committee;

     (6) with the governor’s permission, designate the legislative fiscal analyst to serve ex officio on the governor’s budget review committee;

     (7) identify the actual reduction in state expenditures in the first fiscal year following a review under AS 44.66.040 resulting from that review and inform the Legislative Budget and Audit Committee of the amount of the reduction; and

     (8) not later than the first legislative day of each first regular session of each legislature, conduct a review in accordance with AS 24.20.235 of the report provided to the division under AS 43.05.095.




Sec. 24.20.235. Indirect expenditure report.
 (a) Every two years, the legislative finance division shall deliver to the chair of the finance committee in each house of the legislature a report analyzing the indirect expenditure report created under AS 43.05.095 for the appropriate agencies listed in this subsection. The first review shall occur in the calendar year set out after each agency’s name, as follows, and subsequent reviews of each agency shall occur every six years:
     (1) Department of Commerce, Community, and Economic Development, 2015;

     (2) Department of Fish and Game, 2015;

     (3) Department of Health and Social Services, 2015;

     (4) Department of Labor and Workforce Development, 2015;

     (5) Department of Revenue, 2015;

     (6) Alaska Court System, 2017;

     (7) Department of Administration, 2017;

     (8) Department of Education and Early Development, 2017;

     (9) Department of Environmental Conservation, 2017;

     (10) Department of Natural Resources, 2017;

     (11) Department of Transportation and Public Facilities, 2017;

     (12) all remaining agencies, 2019.

 (b) The report prepared under this section must provide
     (1) an estimate of the revenue foregone by the state because of the indirect expenditure;

     (2) an estimate of the monetary benefit of the indirect expenditure to the recipients of the benefit of the indirect expenditure;

     (3) a determination of whether the legislative intent of the indirect expenditure is being met and, if necessary, a determination of why the legislative intent of the indirect expenditure is not being met;

     (4) a recommendation as to whether each indirect expenditure should be continued, modified, or terminated, a basis for the recommendation, and the expected effect on the economy of the state if the recommendation is executed; and

     (5) an explanation of the methodology and assumptions used in preparing the report.




Sec. 24.20.240. [Repealed, § 1 ch 95 SLA 1971.]
Sec. 24.20.241. Legislative audit division.
The legislative audit division is established as a permanent staff agency responsible to the Legislative Budget and Audit Committee for completion of the post-audit function.

Sec. 24.20.250. [Repealed, § 1 ch 95 SLA 1971.]
Sec. 24.20.251. Qualifications and appointment of legislative auditor.
 (a) The legislative auditor shall be a certified public accountant of this state, or of another state having requirements equivalent to those of this state, with at least five years of practice in the profession, or the equivalent, before the appointment.

 (b) The Legislative Budget and Audit Committee shall examine persons to serve as legislative auditor and, upon completion of the examination, place the name of the person selected in nomination before the legislature. If the legislature is not in session, the person nominated shall carry out the duties of the office until the next session of the legislature at which time the name of the person nominated shall be presented to the legislature for appointment.

 (c) The legislative auditor serves at the pleasure of the legislature. However, when the legislature is not in session, the auditor may be removed for cause by a majority vote of the Legislative Budget and Audit Committee after notice by, and a hearing before, the committee.




Sec. 24.20.260. [Repealed, § 1 ch 95 SLA 1971.]
Sec. 24.20.261. Staff.
 (a) The legislative auditor shall serve as head of the audit division and, within the limits of the budget approved by the committee, shall employ and determine the compensation of the professional and clerical staff of the division.

 (b) The auditor and members of the professional and clerical staff may not join or support any partisan political organization. This prohibition does not prevent the auditor or members of the staff from joining social organizations, expressing private opinion, registering as to party, or voting.




Sec. 24.20.270. [Repealed, § 1 ch 95 SLA 1971.]
Sec. 24.20.271. Powers and duties.
The legislative audit division shall
     (1) conduct a performance post-audit of boards and commissions designated in AS 44.66.010 and make the audit, together with a written report, available to the legislature not later than the first day of the regular session of the legislature convening in each year set out with reference to boards and commissions whose activities are subject to termination as prescribed in AS 44.66; the division shall notify the legislature that the audit and report are available;

     (2) conduct a performance review of the agencies listed in AS 44.66.020(a) and make the final review report available to the legislature not later than the first day of the regular session convening in the year after the year designated for each agency performance review in AS 44.66.020(a);

     (3) audit at least once every three years the books and accounts of all custodians of public funds and all disbursing officers of the state;

     (4) at the direction of the Legislative Budget and Audit Committee, conduct performance post-audits on any agency of state government;

     (5) cooperate with state agencies by offering advice and assistance as requested in establishing or improving the accounting systems used by state agencies;

     (6) require the assistance and cooperation of all state officials and other state employees in the inspection, examination, and audit of state agency books and accounts;

     (7) have access at all times to the books, accounts, reports, or other records, whether confidential or not, of every state agency;

     (8) ascertain, as necessary for audit verification, the amount of agency funds on deposit in any bank as shown on the books of the bank; no bank may be held liable for making information required under this paragraph available to the legislative audit division;

     (9) complete studies and prepare reports, memoranda, or other materials as directed by the Legislative Budget and Audit Committee;

     (10) have direct access to any information related to the management of the University of Alaska and have the same right of access as exists with respect to every other state agency;

     (11) conduct an audit every two years of information found in the annual reports required under AS 42.05.211 and AS 42.06.220 regarding compliance by the Regulatory Commission of Alaska with the requirements of AS 42.05.175(a) — (e) and of the timeline extensions made by the commission under AS 42.05.175(f), and of other performance measures adopted by the commission;

     (12) [Repealed, § 7 ch. 35 SLA 2015.]




Sec. 24.20.280. [Repealed, § 1 ch 95 SLA 1971.]
Sec. 24.20.281. Special audit.
A member of the legislature may, in writing and with at least six days notice, request that the budget and audit committee direct a special audit of any state agency or determine the propriety of any expenditure of state funds received by any political subdivision or other entity obtaining state funds. Should a majority of the committee vote to approve the request, the legislative audit division shall make the audit.

Sec. 24.20.290. [Repealed, § 1 ch 95 SLA 1971.]
Sec. 24.20.291. Conflict of interest.
The legislative auditor, the supervisor of audit, the legislative fiscal analyst, and members of the staff of the legislative finance and audit divisions may not serve in ex officio or other capacity on any board, except as authorized in AS 24.20.231(6), commission or other administrative agency of state government; nor may they have a financial interest in transactions involving any agency of state government.

Sec. 24.20.300. [Repealed, § 1 ch 95 SLA 1971.]
Sec. 24.20.301. Records.
 (a) The legislative audit division shall keep a complete file of all audit reports, performance review reports, and other reports or releases issued by the division, and a complete file of audit work papers, performance review work papers, and other related supportive material. The division shall also keep a complete and accurate record of all fiscal transactions involving the division. Audit records and performance review records are confidential, and audit reports and performance review reports are confidential unless the report has been approved for release under AS 24.20.311.

 (b) The legislative finance division shall keep a complete file of all budget reports and other reports or releases issued by the division and a complete and accurate record of all fiscal transactions involving the division.




Sec. 24.20.310. [Repealed, § 1 ch 95 SLA 1971.]
Sec. 24.20.311. Reports.
 (a) The committee shall file copies of its approved audit reports including any committee recommendations with the governor, the agency concerned, and the legislature. An annual report summarizing the audit reports and committee recommendations made during the year shall be filed with the governor and with the legislature on or before the first day of each regular session of the legislature. Reports shall be approved by a majority of the committee before their release and shall be open to public inspection after their release to the legislature.

 (b) The annual report must include the actual and projected reductions in state expenditures resulting from reviews conducted under AS 44.66.040.




Secs. 24.20.320 — 24.20.370. [Repealed, § 1 ch 95 SLA 1971.]
Secs. 24.20.400 — 24.20.460. Administrative Regulation Review Committee.

Secs. 24.20.500 — 24.20.570. Legislative board of retirement benefits. [Repealed, § 40 ch 146 SLA 1980.]
Secs. 24.20.600 — 24.20.630. Citizens’ Oversight Council on Oil and Other Hazardous Substances. [Repealed, § 43 ch 128 SLA 1994.]
Article 3. Joint Armed Services Committee.
Sec. 24.20.650. Joint Armed Services Committee established.
 (a) The Joint Armed Services Committee is established as a permanent interim committee of the legislature.

 (b) The committee is composed of
     (1) five members of the senate, at least one of whom is a member of the minority, appointed by the president of the senate;

     (2) five members of the house of representatives, at least one of whom is a member of the minority, appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives;

     (3) a state resident, other than a member of the state legislature, who is appointed jointly by the president of the senate and the speaker of the house of representatives after considering the recommendations of the Alaska chapters of each of the following organizations:
          (A) the Association of the United States Army;

          (B) the Air Force Association;

          (C) the Navy League of the United States;

          (D) the Marine Corps Association;

     (4) a state resident, other than a member of the state legislature, who is appointed jointly by the president of the senate and the speaker of the house of representatives after considering the recommendation of the Seventeenth Coast Guard District Auxiliary;

     (5) a state resident, other than a member of the state legislature, who is appointed jointly by the president of the senate and the speaker of the house of representatives after considering the recommendation of the mayor of the Municipality of Anchorage;

     (6) a state resident, other than a member of the state legislature, who is appointed jointly by the president of the senate and the speaker of the house of representatives after considering the recommendation of the mayor of the Fairbanks North Star Borough;

     (7) a state resident, other than a member of the state legislature, who is appointed jointly by the president of the senate and the speaker of the house of representatives after considering the recommendation of the adjutant general of the Department of Military and Veterans’ Affairs; and

     (8) a state resident, other than a member of the state legislature, who is appointed jointly by the president of the senate and the speaker of the house of representatives after considering the joint recommendations of the Alaska Federation of Natives and the Alaska Municipal League.




Sec. 24.20.655. Terms of office; vacancies.
 (a) Each legislative member serves for the duration of the legislature during which the member is appointed. Each public member serves for three years. An individual who has served on the committee may be reappointed.

 (b) A legislator ceases to be a member of the Joint Armed Services Committee if the legislator ceases to be a member of the house from which the legislator was appointed. When a seat on the committee becomes vacant, it shall be filled within 30 days in the manner of the original appointment. An individual appointed to fill a vacancy serves for the remainder of the term to which appointed.




Sec. 24.20.660. Travel and per diem allowances.
Members of the Joint Armed Services Committee are entitled to reimbursement for travel expenses. Members of the committee shall receive per diem allowances in accordance with the policy adopted by the legislative council under AS 24.10.130(c).

Sec. 24.20.665. Meetings.
 (a) Eight members of the Joint Armed Services Committee constitute a quorum.

 (b) The committee members shall select one member from the senate and one member from the house of representatives to serve as co-chairs of the committee.

 (c) The committee may meet during sessions of the legislature and during intervals between sessions at the times and places the co-chairs may determine. Whenever possible, meetings shall be teleconferenced to reduce travel cost.




Sec. 24.20.670. Administration.
The legislative council shall provide administrative and other services to the Joint Armed Services Committee. Within the limits of the amounts made available to the committee by the legislative council, the committee may make expenditures and enter into contracts to carry out the purposes of AS 24.20.650 — 24.20.675. Contracts must be approved by a majority of the members of the committee and are otherwise subject to procedures adopted by the legislative council under AS 36.30.020.

Sec. 24.20.675. Powers and duties.
 (a) The Joint Armed Services Committee shall
     (1) monitor the military base realignment and closure activities of the federal government for bases in the state;

     (2) work on specific realignments and closures proposed by the federal government for bases in the state;

     (3) work with the state’s congressional delegation regarding federal military base realignments and closings in the state;

     (4) attend meetings and hearings related to federal realignments and closures of military bases in the state and provide testimony as necessary;

     (5) review the effect on the state and its communities of federal realignments and closures of military bases in the state;

     (6) monitor the development of the national ballistic missile defense system and work with the congressional delegation of the state, other state and local government organizations, and community groups to advocate and expedite the deployment of the system in this state;

     (7) investigate opportunities to increase joint and combined military training in the state;

     (8) advocate the stationing of reconfigured power projection forces at bases located in the state; and

     (9) prepare and submit a report of its activities to the legislature on the first day of each second regular session.

 (b) The committee may appoint a citizens’ advisory board. Individuals appointed to an advisory board may not receive reimbursement for travel expenses or per diem allowances.




Sec. 24.20.680. Legislative review. [Repealed, § 23 ch 179 SLA 2004.]

Chapter 23. Legislative Contract Procedure.

[Repealed, § 67 ch 106 SLA 1986.]

Chapter 25. Witnesses; Subpoena; Contempt.

Sec. 24.25.010. Issuance and form of subpoena.
 (a) A subpoena requiring the attendance of a witness before either house of the legislature may be issued by the president or the speaker.

 (b) A subpoena requiring the attendance of a witness before a standing or special committee of the legislature may be issued by the chairman of a committee when authorized to do so by a majority of the membership of the committee and with the concurrence of the president or the speaker, or with the concurrence of the house or the senate.

 (c) A subpoena requiring the attendance of a witness before an interim committee established by either house of the legislature, or by both, may be issued by the chairman of a committee when authorized to do so by a majority of the membership of the committee and with the concurrence of the president or the speaker.

 (d) The subpoena is sufficient if
     (1) it states before whom the proceeding is held;

     (2) it is addressed to the witness;

     (3) it requires the attendance of the witness at a time and place certain;

     (4) it is signed
          (A) by the president or the speaker under (a) of this section, or

          (B) by the committee chairman with the concurrence of the president or the speaker under (b) and (c) of this section.

 (e) This section does not apply to the legislative council or to the Legislative Budget and Audit Committee.




Sec. 24.25.020. Service of subpoena.
A person over the age of 19 years who is competent as a witness in the state courts may serve the subpoena. The person’s affidavit that the person delivered a copy to the witness is evidence of service.

Sec. 24.25.030. Disobeying subpoena or refusing to testify.
If a witness neglects or refuses to obey a subpoena, or neglects or refuses to testify or to produce upon reasonable notice any material and proper books, papers, or documents in the possession or under the control of the witness, the senate or house of representatives may by resolution entered on its journal commit the witness for contempt. If contempt is committed before a committee, the committee shall report the contempt to the senate or house of representatives, as the case may be, for such action as may be considered necessary.

Sec. 24.25.040. Arrest for disobedience to subpoena.
A witness who neglects or refuses to attend in obedience to subpoena may be arrested by the sergeant-at-arms and brought before the senate or house of representatives, as the case may be. The only warrant or authority necessary authorizing arrest is a copy of a resolution of the senate or house of representatives signed by the president of the senate or speaker of the house of representatives, as the case may be, and countersigned by the secretary of the senate or the clerk of the house of representatives, as the case may be.

Sec. 24.25.050. Witness fees and mileage.
A person appearing before either house, or both, or a legislative committee in response to a subpoena is entitled to $20 for each day’s attendance, and for the time necessary in coming and returning to the person’s place of residence and mileage at the rate of 15 cents a mile for the distance traveled in going to and returning from the place of attendance. The witness fee and mileage fee shall be paid out of the state treasury upon presentation of a certificate of attendance and mileage due, signed by the presiding officer of the house that authorized issuance of subpoena.

Sec. 24.25.060. Oath and penalty for violation of oath.
The president of the senate and speaker of the house of representatives and the chairman of every committee of either body may administer an oath to a witness appearing before the respective bodies. A person who wilfully swears or affirms falsely concerning any matter material to the subject under investigation or inquiry is guilty of perjury and upon conviction is punishable by imprisonment for not less than one year nor more than five years.

Sec. 24.25.070. Grant of immunity on claim of privilege of self-incrimination.
 (a) A person called as a witness before the senate, house of representatives, or a committee of either or both, who refuses to answer any question or to produce any book, paper, or document relating to the matter under inquiry, on the ground that the answer or the production may tend to incriminate the person, may be granted immunity from punishment for the offense to which the question or evidence relates by resolution of the house that is conducting the inquiry. The resolution shall be entered upon its journal, and the witness may then be compelled to answer the question or produce the evidence.

 (b) If a witness is granted immunity and compelled to testify or produce evidence after claiming the privilege of self-incrimination, the witness may not thereafter be prosecuted in any court for the offense to which the question or evidence relates.




Sec. 24.25.080. Punishment for disobedience to subpoena or refusal to testify.
A person subpoenaed as provided in this chapter who fails, neglects, or refuses to attend at the time and place where the person’s presence is required, or fails, neglects, or refuses to produce the books, papers, or instruments or other evidence designated in the subpoena, or who having attended in response to the subpoena, or having appeared voluntarily, refuses to testify as to any material and proper matter within the power of the senate, house of representatives, or a committee to investigate, upon conviction, is punishable by a fine of not less than $100 nor more than $500, or by imprisonment for not less than 30 days nor more than six months.

Chapter 30. Enactment of Statutes.

Secs. 24.30.010 — 24.30.100. [Renumbered as AS 24.08.010 — 24.08.100.]
Sec. 24.30.110. Effective date of laws. [Repealed, § 9 ch 126 SLA 1966. For current law see AS 01.10.070.]
Sec. 24.30.120. [Renumbered as AS 24.08.110.]
Sec. 24.30.130. [Renumbered (a) as AS 24.08.200 and (b) as AS 24.08.210.]

Chapter 35. Printing and Distribution of Legislative Enactments.

Secs. 24.35.010 and 24.35.020. [Renumbered as AS 24.08.300 — 24.08.330.]

Chapter 37. Review of Administrative Regulations by Standing Committees of the Legislature.

Sec. 24.37.010. [Renumbered as AS 24.05.182.]

Chapter 40. Judicial Proceedings Involving Legislators.

A legislator may not be held to answer before any other tribunal for any statement made in the exercise of legislative duties while the legislature is in session. A member attending, going to, or returning from legislative sessions is not subject to civil process and is privileged from arrest except for felony or breach of the peace. The immunities provided in this section extend to a legislator attending, going to, or returning from a meeting of an interim standing or special committee of the legislature of which the legislator is a member. For the purposes of going to and returning from a session or meeting, the immunities provided extend to a legislator for a period of five days immediately preceding and following the legislator’s attendance at the session or meeting.

Sec. 24.40.020. Continuance in a criminal proceeding where defendant, defense attorney, or witness is a member of the legislature.
Upon a showing that the attorney of record at the time of the defendant’s first appearance in the court of record or a principal witness or a party in a criminal proceeding is a member of the legislature and that the legislature is in session or that a legislative interim committee of which the legislator is a member is meeting or is to meet within the next seven days, the defendant is entitled to a reasonable continuance of the date of trial until at least 15 days after the legislative session or interim committee meeting. However, a continuance for this reason shall not exceed 30 days after recess of the legislature or interim committee. A continuance may not be granted for any longer time than it is affirmatively proved the ends of justice require.

Sec. 24.40.030. [Repealed, § 39 ch 53 SLA 1973.]
Sec. 24.40.031. Postponement of civil proceedings when a party or attorney is a member of the legislature.
When it appears that a party or an attorney of record of a party to a civil action is a member of the legislature of this state, and that the legislature is in session, the action shall be continued until 10 days after the legislature has adjourned, unless the party or attorney upon the call of the action for trial waives the benefit of this section. When it appears that a party or an attorney of record of a party to a civil action is a member of the Alaska Legislative Council, the Legislative Budget and Audit Committee, or one of their subcommittees, the action shall be continued when the legislative council, budget and audit committee, or the subcommittee, as the case may be, is holding a meeting, unless the party or attorney upon the call of the action for trial waives the benefit of this section. When it is necessary to file a brief or memorandum of law in an action that has been continued under the provisions of this section, the action shall be continued for a time sufficient to prepare and file the brief or memorandum.

Chapter 45. Regulation of Lobbying.

Article 1. Legislative Declaration of Purpose.
Sec. 24.45.010. [Repealed, § 1 ch 167 SLA 1976.]
Sec. 24.45.011. Purpose.
The legislature finds and declares that the operation of responsible representative democracy requires that the fullest opportunity be afforded to the people to petition their government for the redress of grievances and to express freely to individual members of the legislature, to its committees, and to officials of the executive branch, their opinions on pending legislation or administrative actions; and that the people are entitled to know the identity, income, expenditures, and activities of those persons who pay, are paid or reimbursed for expenses, or who make expenditures or other payments in an effort to influence legislative or administrative action.

Sec. 24.45.020. [Repealed, § 1 ch 167 SLA 1976.]
Article 2. Administration.
Sec. 24.45.021. Administration.
 (a) This chapter shall be administered by the Alaska Public Offices Commission created under AS 15.13.020(a).

 (b) The commission shall adopt regulations under AS 44.62 (Administrative Procedure Act) to implement the provisions of this chapter.




Sec. 24.45.030. [Repealed, § 1 ch 167 SLA 1976.]
Article 3. Disclosure: Registration and Reports.
Sec. 24.45.031. Powers and duties.
 (a) In addition to its other duties under this chapter, the commission shall
     (1) prescribe the forms for registration, reports, statements, notices, and other documents required by this chapter;

     (2) prepare and publish instructions setting out the methods of accounting, bookkeeping, and preservation of records required to facilitate compliance with and enforcement of this chapter and explaining the duties of persons subject to the provisions of this chapter; the instructions shall be updated periodically;

     (3) provide assistance to persons in complying with the provisions of this chapter;

     (4) prepare and publish a biennial report of its activities, findings, and recommendations under this chapter, which shall be made available to the governor, legislature, and to the public by February 1 of each odd-numbered calendar year; the commission shall notify the legislature that the report is available;

     (5) report suspected violations of this chapter to the attorney general;

     (6) administer an annually updated training course that promotes adherence to high ethical standards of professional conduct and teaches lobbyists and employers of lobbyists how to comply with laws that regulate lobbyists.

 (b) The commission may
     (1) hold hearings and conduct investigations into compliance with the provisions of this chapter;

     (2) in conjunction with (1) of this subsection, issue subpoenas, compel the attendance and testimony of witnesses, administer oaths and affirmations, and require the production of books, papers, records, documents, or other items material to the commission’s duties or powers under this chapter;

     (3) prepare, publish, and make available to the public, periodic, but at least biannually, summaries of the statements and reports received; these summaries shall list separately individual lobbyists and employers of lobbyists.




Sec. 24.45.040. [Repealed, § 1 ch 167 SLA 1976.]
Sec. 24.45.041. Registration; disqualification.
 (a) Before engaging in lobbying, a lobbyist shall file a registration statement on a form prescribed by the commission.

 (b) The registration form prescribed by the commission must include
     (1) the lobbyist’s full name and complete permanent residence and business address and telephone number, as well as any temporary residential and business address and telephone number in the state capital during a legislative session;

     (2) the full name and complete address of each person by whom the lobbyist is retained or employed;

     (3) whether the person from whom the lobbyist receives compensation employs the person solely as a lobbyist or whether the person is a regular employee performing other services for the employer that include but are not limited to the influencing of legislative or administrative action;

     (4) the nature or form of the lobbyist’s compensation for engaging in lobbying, including salary, fees, or reimbursement for expenses received in consideration for, or directly in support of or in connection with, the influencing of legislative or administrative action;

     (5) a general description of the subjects or matters on which the registrant expects to lobby or to engage in the influencing of legislative or administrative action;

     (6) the full name and complete address of the person, if other than the registrant, who has custody of the accounts, books, papers, bills, receipts, and other documents required to be maintained under this chapter;

     (7) the identification of a legislative employee or public official to whom the lobbyist is married or who is the domestic partner of the lobbyist;

     (8) a sworn affirmation by the lobbyist that the lobbyist has completed the training course administered by the commission under AS 24.45.031(a) within the 12-month period preceding the date of registration or registration renewal under this chapter, except that this paragraph does not apply to a person who is a representational lobbyist as defined under regulations of the commission;

     (9) a sworn affirmation by the lobbyist that the lobbyist has not been previously convicted of a felony involving moral turpitude; in this paragraph, “felony involving moral turpitude” has the meaning given in AS 15.80.010, and includes convictions for a violation of the law of this state or a violation of the law of another jurisdiction with elements similar to a felony involving moral turpitude in this state.

 (c) At the option of the registrant, the registration form may be accompanied by four two and one-half inch by two and one-half inch black and white photographs of the lobbyist. The photographs may not be more than five years old. These photographs shall be included in the directory published under (e) of this section.

 (d) If a change occurs in any of the information contained in a registration statement filed under (a) of this section, or in any accompanying document, an appropriate amendment shall be filed with the commission within 10 days after the change.

 (e) Within 15 days after the convening of each regular session of the legislature, the commission shall publish a directory of registered lobbyists, containing the information prescribed in (b) of this section for each lobbyist and the photograph, if any, furnished by a lobbyist under (c) of this section. From time to time thereafter, the commission shall publish those supplements to the directory that in the commission’s judgment may be necessary. The directory shall be made available to public officials and to the public at the following locations: a public place adjacent to the legislative chambers in the state capitol building, the office of the lieutenant governor, the legislative reference library of the Legislative Affairs Agency, and the commission’s central office.

 (f) Each lobbyist shall renew the registration annually by filing a new registration statement together with a new authorization to act as a lobbyist before engaging in lobbying. The lobbyist also shall file any reports or statements the lobbyist has failed to file for a previous reporting period. The commission may not renew lobbying credentials until this provision is complied with.

 (g) An application for registration as a lobbyist under (a) of this section or for renewal of a registration under (f) of this section is subject to a fee of $250. The commission may not accept an application for registration or renew a registration until the fee is paid. This subsection does not apply to a volunteer lobbyist under AS 24.45.161 or a representational lobbyist under regulations of the commission.

 (h) Upon request of the commission, information required under this section shall be submitted electronically.

 (i) A person may not register if the person has been previously convicted of a felony involving moral turpitude in violation of a law of this state or the law of another jurisdiction with elements similar to a felony involving moral turpitude in this state.

 (j) In this section,
     (1) “felony involving moral turpitude” has the meaning given in AS 15.80.010;

     (2) “previously convicted” means the defendant entered a plea of guilty, no contest, or nolo contendere, or has been found guilty by a court or jury; “previously convicted” does not include a conviction that has been set aside under AS 12.55.085 or a similar procedure in another jurisdiction, or that has been reversed or vacated by a court.




Sec. 24.45.050. [Repealed, § 1 ch 167 SLA 1976.]
Sec. 24.45.051. Reports.
 (a) Each lobbyist registered under AS 24.45.041 shall file with the commission a report concerning the lobbyist’s activities during each reporting period prescribed in AS 24.45.081, so long as the lobbyist continues to engage in lobbying activities. The report shall be made on a form prescribed by the commission and filed in accordance with AS 24.45.071 and 24.45.081. Upon request of the commission, information required under this section shall be submitted electronically. The report also must include any changes in the information required to be supplied under AS 24.45.041(b) and the following information for the reporting period, as applicable:
     (1) the source of income, as defined in AS 39.50.200(a) and the monetary value of all payments, including but not limited to salary, fees, and reimbursement of expenses, received in consideration for or directly or indirectly in support of or in connection with influencing legislative or administrative action, and the full name and complete address of each person from whom amounts or things of value have been received and the total monetary value received from each person;

     (2) the aggregate amount of disbursements or expenditures made or incurred during the period in support of or in connection with influencing legislative or administrative action by the lobbyist, or on behalf of the lobbyist by the lobbyist’s employer in the following categories:
          (A) food and beverages;

          (B) living accommodations;

          (C) travel;

     (3) the date and nature of any gift exceeding $100 in value made to a public official and the full name and official position of that person;

     (4) the name and official position of each public official, and the name of each member of the immediate family of any of these officials, with whom the lobbyist has engaged in an exchange of money, goods, services, or anything of more than $100 in value and the nature and date of each of these exchanges and the monetary values exchanged;

     (5) the name and address of any business entity in which the lobbyist knows or has reason to know that a public official is a proprietor, partner, director, officer or manager, or has a controlling interest, and whom the lobbyist has engaged in an exchange of money, goods, services, or anything of value and the nature and date of each exchange and the monetary value exchanged if the total value of these exchanges is $100 or more in a calendar year; and

     (6) a notice of termination if the lobbyist has ceased the lobbying activity that required registration under this chapter and if this report constitutes the final report of the lobbyist’s activities.

 (b) [Repealed, § 13 ch. 61 SLA 2018.]




Sec. 24.45.060. [Repealed, § 1 ch 167 SLA 1976.]
Sec. 24.45.061. Reports by employers of lobbyists.
 (a) Within 15 days after employing, retaining, or contracting for the employment or retention of a lobbyist, the person who employs, retains, or who contracts for the services of a lobbyist shall file a statement with the commission authorizing or verifying that employment, retention, or contract for lobbying services.

 (b) A person who employs, retains, or who contracts for the services of one or more lobbyists, whether independently or jointly with other persons, and who directly or indirectly makes payments to influence legislative or administrative action shall file a quarterly report containing
     (1) the full name, complete business address and telephone number of the person making the report;

     (2) information sufficient to identify the nature and interests of the person making the report;

     (3) the total amount of payments made to influence legislative or administrative action during the period, and the name and address of each person to whom these payments have been made during the period by the maker of the report, together with the date and amount;

     (4) the date and nature of any gift exceeding $100 in value made to any public official and the full name and official position of the recipient of each gift;

     (5) a general description of the legislative or administrative action that the person making the report has attempted to influence;

     (6) the name of each lobbyist employed or retained by the person making the report, together with the total amount paid to each lobbyist and the portion of that amount, if any, that was paid for specific purposes, including salary, fees, and reimbursement for expenses; and

     (7) a notice of termination if the person filing a report has ceased employing or retaining a lobbyist registered under this chapter and if this report constitutes the final report of the lobbyist’s activities on behalf of the maker of the report.

 (c) Upon request of the commission, information required under this section shall be submitted electronically.




Sec. 24.45.070. [Repealed, § 1 ch 167 SLA 1976.]
Sec. 24.45.071. Certification of reports.
Every statement or report required to be filed under this chapter must identify the full name of the person preparing it, the person’s complete address and telephone number, and shall be certified as complete and correct, both by the person preparing it and by the person on whose behalf it is filed.

Sec. 24.45.080. [Repealed, § 1 ch 167 SLA 1976.]
Sec. 24.45.081. Reporting periods.
Reports required under this chapter shall be filed during the calendar month following each calendar month during any part of which the legislature was in session and during the month following each calendar quarter when the legislature was not in session. However, if a lobbyist registered under this chapter has declared that the lobbyist seeks only to influence administrative action and not legislative action the lobbyist need only file a report required under this chapter for each calendar quarter. The period covered shall be the calendar month or the calendar quarter, as applicable, and shall in any event cover the period from the date of the last report filed under this chapter to the date of the end of the calendar month or quarter, as applicable, for which the report is being filed. The period covered shall not include any months covered in previous reports filed by the same person. When total amounts are required to be reported, totals shall be stated both for the period covered by the statement and for the entire calendar year to date.

Sec. 24.45.090. [Repealed, § 1 ch 167 SLA 1976.]
Sec. 24.45.091. Publication of reports.
Copies of the statements and reports filed under this chapter shall be made available to the public at the commission’s central office, the office of the lieutenant governor, the legislative reference library of the Legislative Affairs Agency, and at the commission’s district offices prescribed in AS 15.13.020(j) as soon as practicable after each reporting period.

Sec. 24.45.100. [Repealed, § 1 ch 167 SLA 1976.]
Sec. 24.45.101. Public records.
Statements and reports filed under this chapter are public records and shall be available for public inspection and copying during normal business hours at the expense of the person requesting copies; however, the charge for copying may not exceed actual cost to the commission.

Sec. 24.45.110. [Repealed, § 1 ch 167 SLA 1976.]
Sec. 24.45.111. Preservation of records.
 (a) A person required to register or report as a lobbyist or as a person who employs, retains, or contracts for the services of a lobbyist shall preserve all accounts, bills, receipts, books, papers, and documents necessary to substantiate the reports required to be made and filed under this chapter for a period of at least six years from the date of the filing of the report containing these items. These accounts, bills, receipts, books, papers, and other documents shall be made available for inspection by the commission, or members of its staff, at any time. If a lobbyist is required under the terms of the lobbyist’s employment contract to turn any records over to the employer, responsibility for the preservation of these records under this section rests with the employer.

 (b) The commission shall preserve the statements and reports required to be filed under this chapter for a period of six years from the date of filing. If the commission’s central office is not in the state capital, copies of all statements and reports filed under this chapter shall be maintained in an office established by the commission in the state capital or in the office of the lieutenant governor.




Article 4. Penalties and Enforcement.
Sec. 24.45.116. Disclosure of contributions.
A civic league or organization shall report the total amount of contributions received for the reporting period and, for any contribution over $100, the name of the contributor and the amount contributed. The civic league or organization may establish a separate fund to account for receipts and expenditures arising out of activities to influence legislative action. Reports shall be made on a form provided by the commission on February 10, April 25, and July 10 of each year, listing contributions received during the period that ended 10 days earlier. Upon request of the commission, information required under this section shall be submitted electronically.

Sec. 24.45.120. [Repealed, § 1 ch 167 SLA 1976.]
Sec. 24.45.121. Prohibitions.
 (a) A lobbyist may not
     (1) engage in any activity as a lobbyist before registering under AS 24.45.041;

     (2) do anything with the intent of placing a public official under personal obligation to the lobbyist or to the lobbyist’s employer;

     (3) intentionally deceive or attempt to deceive any public official with regard to any material fact pertinent to pending or proposed legislative or administrative action;

     (4) cause or influence the introduction of a legislative measure solely for the purpose of thereafter being employed to secure its passage or its defeat;

     (5) cause a communication to be sent to a public official in the name of any fictitious person or in the name of any real person, except with the consent of that person;

     (6) accept or agree to accept any payment in any way contingent upon the defeat, enactment, or outcome of any proposed legislative or administrative action;

     (7) serve as a member of a state board or commission, if the lobbyist’s employer may receive direct economic benefit from a decision of that board or commission;

     (8) serve as a campaign manager or director, serve as a campaign treasurer or deputy campaign treasurer on a finance or fund-raising committee, host a fund-raising event, directly or indirectly collect contributions for, or deliver contributions to, a candidate, or otherwise engage in the fund-raising activity of a legislative campaign or campaign for governor or lieutenant governor if the lobbyist has registered, or is required to register, as a lobbyist under this chapter, during the calendar year; this paragraph does not apply to a representational lobbyist as defined in the regulations of the Alaska Public Offices Commission, and does not prohibit a lobbyist from making personal contributions to a candidate as authorized by AS 15.13 or personally advocating on behalf of a candidate;

     (9) offer, solicit, initiate, facilitate, or provide to or on behalf of a person covered by AS 24.60 a gift, other than food or a nonalcoholic beverage for immediate consumption under AS 24.60.080(a)(2)(A), or a compassionate gift under AS 24.60.075; however, this paragraph does not prohibit a lobbyist from providing
          (A) a gift to a legislator or legislative employee who is a member of the lobbyist’s immediate family as defined in AS 24.60.990(a), if the gift is unconnected to the recipient’s legislative status;

          (B) tickets to a charity event described in AS 24.60.080(a)(2)(B); or

          (C) a contribution to a charity event under AS 24.60.080(c)(10);

     (10) make or offer a gift or a campaign contribution whose acceptance by the person to whom it is offered would violate AS 24.60 or AS 39.52.

 (b) A person may not employ for pay or any consideration, or pay or agree to pay consideration to, a person to lobby who is not registered under AS 24.45.041 unless that person registers and that person does in fact so register before engaging in lobbying.

 (c) A former member of the legislature may not engage in activity as a lobbyist before the legislature for a period of one year after the former member has left the legislature. This subsection does not prohibit a former member from acting as a volunteer lobbyist described in AS 24.45.161(a)(1) or a representational lobbyist as defined under regulations of the commission.

 (d) An individual may not, at any time that AS 39.52 prohibits that individual from engaging in activity as a lobbyist, register as a lobbyist under this chapter or engage in any activity as a lobbyist. This subsection does not prohibit registration or service as a volunteer lobbyist described in AS 24.45.161(a)(1) or a representational lobbyist, as defined in regulation by the commission.

 (e) The spouse or domestic partner of a legislator may not engage in activity as a lobbyist. This subsection does not prohibit the spouse or domestic partner from acting as a volunteer lobbyist under AS 24.45.161(a)(1) or a representational lobbyist, as defined in regulation by the commission.




Sec. 24.45.130. [Repealed, § 1 ch 167 SLA 1976.]
Sec. 24.45.131. Examination of statements, reports.
 (a) The commission or its staff shall examine each statement or report filed under this chapter within 10 days after the date it is filed. A person required to file a statement or report under this chapter shall be notified immediately if
     (1) it appears that the person has failed to file a statement or report as required by law or that the statement or report filed does not conform to the requirements of this chapter; or

     (2) a written complaint is filed with the commission by any person alleging that a statement or report filed with the commission does not conform to the requirements of this chapter, or to the truth, or that a person subject to the provisions of this chapter has failed to file a statement or report in the manner prescribed by this chapter.

 (b) The commission shall conduct an investigation, and may thereafter conduct a hearing, into an allegation under (a)(2) of this section.

 (c) The commission shall report any suspected violations of this chapter to the attorney general, to a district attorney in the judicial district where the alleged violation occurred, or to a grand jury.

 (d) If a member of the commission files a complaint, that member of the commission may not participate in any proceeding of the commission relating to the complaint.




Sec. 24.45.135. Administrative complaints.
 (a) A person may file a written complaint alleging that a violation of AS 24.45.121 — 24.45.171 has occurred or is occurring.

 (b) Complaints filed under (a) of this section must be filed within five years after the date of the alleged violation.




Sec. 24.45.140. [Repealed, § 1 ch 167 SLA 1976.]
Sec. 24.45.141. Civil penalty: Late registration, filing of required statements or reports.
A person who fails to register or to file a properly completed and certified report or statement, as applicable, within the time required by this chapter is subject to a civil penalty of not more than $10 a day for each day the delinquency continues as determined by the commission subject to right of appeal to the superior court. An affidavit stating facts in mitigation may be submitted to the commission by a person against whom a civil penalty is assessed. However, the imposition of the penalties prescribed in this section or in AS 24.45.151 does not excuse the lobbyist or employer of a lobbyist from filing statements or reports required by this chapter.

Sec. 24.45.150. [Repealed, § 1 ch 167 SLA 1976.]
Article 5. General Provisions.
Sec. 24.45.151. Criminal penalties.
 (a) An individual who knowingly violates any provision of this chapter, whether acting for oneself, on behalf of an employer, or in concert with other persons, is, upon conviction, punishable by a fine of not more than $1,000, or by imprisonment for not more than one year, or by both.

 (b) An individual who knowingly causes, participates in, aids, abets, ratifies, or confirms any violation of a provision of this chapter is, upon conviction, punishable by a fine of not more than $1,000, or by imprisonment for not more than one year, or by both.

 (c) A person, other than an individual, who knowingly violates any provision of this chapter, whether acting for oneself, on behalf of an employer, or in concert with other persons, or who knowingly causes, participates in, aids, abets, ratifies, or confirms any violation of a provision of this chapter is, upon conviction, punishable by a fine of not more than $10,000 for each offense.

 (d) A person who knowingly makes a false or misleading report or statement required under this chapter is, upon conviction, punishable by a fine of not more than $1,000, or by imprisonment for not more than one year, or by both.




Sec. 24.45.161. Exemptions.
 (a) This chapter does not apply to
     (1) an individual
          (A) who lobbies without payment of compensation or other consideration and makes no disbursement or expenditure for or on behalf of a public official to influence legislative or administrative action other than to pay the individual’s reasonable personal travel and living expenses; and

          (B) who limits lobbying activities to appearances before public sessions of the legislature, or its committees or subcommittees, or to public hearings or other public proceedings of state agencies;

     (2) an elected or appointed state or municipal public officer or an employee of the state or a municipality acting in an official capacity or within the scope of employment;

     (3) any newspaper or other periodical of general circulation, book publisher, radio or television station (including an individual who owns, publishes, or is employed by that newspaper or periodical, radio or television station) that publishes news items, editorials, or other comments, or paid advertisements, that directly or indirectly urge legislative or administrative action if the newspaper, periodical, book publisher, radio or television station, or individual engages in no further or other activities in connection with urging or advocating legislative or administrative action other than to appear before public sessions of the legislature, or its committees or subcommittees, or public hearings or other public proceedings of state agencies;

     (4) a person who appears before the legislature or either house, or standing, special, or interim committee, in response to an invitation issued under (c) of this section.

 (b) Nothing in this chapter may be construed as prohibiting or affecting the rendering of professional services in drafting legislative measures or in advising clients and in rendering opinions as to the construction or effect of proposed or pending legislative or administrative action when these professional services are not otherwise connected with influencing or attempting to influence legislative or administrative action. Nor does anything in this chapter prevent members of the legislature from discussing with constituents the advisability of passing legislation then pending before, or proposed to be presented to, the legislature.

 (c) Either house of the legislature by resolution, or both houses of the legislature by concurrent resolution, may invite a person to appear to speak before the legislature or either house with reference to any pending matter. A standing, special, or interim committee of either house of the legislature may, upon the concurrence of a majority of its members, extend an invitation to any person to appear before the committee to give information in regard to, or explain, any matter pending before the committee.

 (d) An individual exempt from this chapter under (a)(1) of this section may, at the individual’s option, register and report under this chapter.




Sec. 24.45.171. Definitions.
In this chapter,
     (1) “administrative action” means the proposal, drafting, development, consideration, amendment, adoption, approval, promulgation, issuance, modification, rejection, or postponement by any state agency of any rule or regulation, or any other quasi-legislative or quasi-judicial action or proceeding whether or not governed by AS 44.62 (Administrative Procedure Act); “administrative action” does not include
          (A) a proceeding or an action to determine the rights or duties of a person under existing statutes, regulations, or policies;

          (B) the issuance, amendment, or revocation of a permit, license, or entitlement for use under existing statutes, regulations, or policies by the agency authorized to issue, amend, or revoke the permit, license, or entitlement for use;

          (C) the enforcement of compliance with existing law or the imposition of sanctions for a violation of existing law;

          (D) procurement activity, including the purchase or sale of property, goods, or services by the agency or the award of a grant contract;

          (E) the issuance of, or ensuring compliance with, an opinion or activity related to a collective bargaining agreement including negotiating or enforcing the agreement;

     (2) “agency” means a state department, division, commission, board, office, bureau, institution, corporation, authority, organization, committee, council or board in the executive branch, or independent of the executive branch, of state government;

     (3) “commission” means the Alaska Public Offices Commission;

     (4) “communicate directly” means to speak with a legislator, legislative employee, or public official
          (A) by telephone;

          (B) by two-way electronic communication; or

          (C) in person;

     (5) “domestic partner” has the meaning given in AS 39.50.200(a);

     (6) “gift”
          (A) means any payment to the extent that consideration of equal or greater value is not received;

          (B) includes but is not limited to
               (i) a loan, loan guarantee, forgiveness of a loan, payment of a loan by a third party, or an enforceable promise to make a payment except when full and adequate consideration is received;

               (ii) the purchase of tickets for travel or for entertainment events; and

               (iii) the granting of discounts or rebates for goods or services not extended to the public generally;

          (C) does not include
               (i) informational or promotional materials, including but not limited to books, reports, pamphlets, calendars, or periodicals; however, payments for travel or reimbursement for expenses may not be considered “informational material”;

               (ii) food and beverages consumed in places of public accommodation;

     (7) “immediate family” means the spouse and dependent children of an individual;

     (8) “individual” means a natural person;

     (9) “influencing legislative or administrative action” means to communicate directly for the purpose of introducing, promoting, advocating, supporting, modifying, opposing, or delaying or seeking to do the same with respect to any legislative or administrative action;

     (10) “legislative action” means the preparation, research, drafting, introduction, consideration, modification, amendment, approval, passage, enactment, defeat, or rejection of any bill, resolution, amendment, motion, report, nomination, appointment, or other matter by the legislature, or by a standing, interim, or special committee of the legislature, or by a member or employee of the legislature acting in an official capacity; it includes, but is not limited to, the action of the governor in approving or vetoing a bill or the action of the legislature in considering, overriding, or sustaining that veto and the action of the legislature in considering, confirming, or rejecting an executive appointment of the governor;

     (11) “lobbyist” means a person who
          (A) is employed and receives payments, or who contracts for economic consideration, including reimbursement for reasonable travel and living expenses, to communicate directly or through the person’s agents with any public official for the purpose of influencing legislation or administrative action for more than 10 hours in any 30-day period in one calendar year; or

          (B) represents oneself as engaging in the influencing of legislative or administrative action as a business, occupation, or profession;

     (12) “payment” means the disbursement, distribution, transfer, loan, advance, deposit, gift, or other rendering or tendering of money, property, goods, or services or anything else of value;

     (13) “payment to influence legislative or administrative action” means any of the following:
          (A) a direct or indirect payment to a lobbyist whether for salary, fee, compensation for expenses, or any other purpose, by a person employing, retaining, or contracting for the services of the lobbyist separately or jointly with other persons;

          (B) a payment in support of or assistance to a lobbyist or the lobbyist’s activities, including but not limited to the direct payment of expenses incurred at the request or suggestion of the lobbyist;

          (C) a payment that directly benefits a public official or a member of the immediate family of that official;

          (D) a payment, including compensation, payment, or reimbursement for the services, time, or expenses of an employee for or in connection with direct communication with a public official;

          (E) a payment for or in connection with soliciting or urging other persons to enter into direct communication with a public official;

          (F) a payment or reimbursement for expenses in the categories set out in AS 24.45.051(a)(2);

     (14) “person”, in addition to the terms set out in AS 01.10.060 includes a labor union; and

     (15) “public official” or “public officer” means a public official as defined in AS 39.50.200(a), a member of the legislature, or a legislative director as defined in AS 24.60.990(a); however, it does not include a judicial officer or an elected or appointed municipal officer.




Sec. 24.45.181. Short title.
This chapter may be cited as the Regulation of Lobbying Act.

Chapter 50. Student Guests of Legislature.

Sec. 24.50.010. Annual student guests.
The legislature may each year while in session serve as host to one member of each high school in the state for a stay of one week in the capital to observe and learn the legislative process.

Sec. 24.50.020. Selection by schools.
Each high school of the state may annually and before the end of the calendar year select one member of its student body as a legislative guest.

Sec. 24.50.030. Arrangements.
When the representative has been selected under AS 24.50.020, the principal of the school shall certify the selection to the legislative council. The legislative council is responsible for making all necessary administrative and fiscal arrangements for the transportation and housing of the selected students in coordination with the principals. Funds for the transportation, housing, and meals of the students shall be included in the general appropriation for legislative expenses as budgeted for by the legislative council.

Sec. 24.50.040. Essay contest.
Before leaving the state capital, each legislative guest shall prepare and submit to the director of the Legislative Affairs Agency a paper of not less than 1,000 words entitled “The Legislature Should ……….”. Each paper shall be examined and judged as to content by the governor, the president of the senate, the speaker of the house of representatives, the minority leader of the senate, and the minority leader of the house. The author of the paper determined best by majority vote shall receive a one-year scholarship to the University of Alaska.

Chapter 55. Office of the Ombudsman.

Article 1. Organization.
Sec. 24.55.010. Office of the ombudsman.
There is created in the legislative branch of the state the office of the ombudsman.

Sec. 24.55.020. Appointment of the ombudsman.
 (a) A candidate for appointment as the ombudsman shall be nominated by the ombudsman selection committee composed of three members of the senate appointed by the president of the senate and three members of the house of representatives appointed by the speaker of the house. One member of the minority party caucus in each house shall be appointed to the selection committee.

 (b) The ombudsman selection committee shall examine persons to serve as ombudsman regarding their qualifications and ability and shall place the name of the person selected in nomination. The appointment is effective if the nomination is approved by a roll call vote of two-thirds of the members of the legislature in joint session and approved by the governor. However, the governor may veto the appointment and return it, with a statement of objections, to the legislature. Upon receipt of a veto message the legislature shall meet immediately in joint session and reconsider approval of the vetoed appointment. The vetoed appointment becomes effective by an affirmative vote of two-thirds of the membership of the legislature in joint session. The vote on the appointment and on reconsideration of a vetoed appointment shall be entered in the journals of both houses.

 (c) The appointment of the ombudsman becomes effective if, while the legislature is in session, the governor neither approves nor vetoes it within 15 days, Sundays excepted, after its delivery to the governor. If the legislature is not in session and the governor neither approves nor vetoes the appointment within 20 days, Sundays excepted, after its delivery to the governor, the appointment becomes effective.




Sec. 24.55.030. Qualifications; prohibition against political activity.
 (a) A person may not serve as ombudsman
     (1) within one year of the last day on which the person served as a member of the legislature;

     (2) while the person is a candidate for or holds any other national, state, or municipal office; nor may the ombudsman become a candidate for national, state, or municipal office until one year has elapsed from the date the ombudsman vacates the office of ombudsman;

     (3) while the person is engaged in any other occupation for which the person receives compensation;

     (4) unless the person is at least 21 years of age and is a qualified voter who has been a resident of the state for at least three years.

 (b) It is essential that the nonpartisan nature, integrity, and impartiality of the ombudsman’s functions and services be maintained. The ombudsman and members of the staff of the ombudsman may not join, support, or otherwise participate in a partisan political organization, faction, or activity, including but not limited to the making of political contributions. However, this subsection does not restrict the ombudsman or members of the staff of the ombudsman from expressing private opinion, registering as to party, or voting.




Sec. 24.55.040. Term of office.
 (a) The term of office of the ombudsman is five years. An ombudsman may be reappointed but may not serve for more than three terms.

 (b) If the term of an ombudsman expires without the appointment of a successor under this chapter, the incumbent ombudsman may continue in office until a successor is appointed. If the ombudsman dies, resigns, becomes ineligible to serve, or is removed or suspended from office, the person appointed as acting ombudsman under AS 24.55.070(a) serves until a new ombudsman is appointed for a full term.




Sec. 24.55.050. Removal.
The legislature, by a concurrent resolution adopted by a roll call vote of two-thirds of the members in each house entered in the journal, may remove or suspend the ombudsman from office, but only for neglect of duty, misconduct, or disability.

Sec. 24.55.060. Compensation.
The ombudsman is entitled to receive an annual salary equal to a step in Range 26 on the salary schedule set out in AS 39.27.011(a).

Sec. 24.55.070. Staff and delegation.
 (a) The ombudsman shall appoint a person to serve as acting ombudsman in the absence of the ombudsman. The ombudsman shall also appoint assistants and clerical personnel necessary to carry out the provisions of this chapter.

 (b) The ombudsman may delegate to the assistants any of the ombudsman’s duties except those specified in AS 24.55.190 and 24.55.200; however, during the ombudsman’s absence from the principal business offices, the ombudsman may delegate the duties specified in AS 24.55.190 and 24.55.200 to the acting ombudsman for the duration of the absence. The duties specified in AS 24.55.190 and 24.55.200 shall be performed by the acting ombudsman when serving under AS 24.55.040(b).

 (c) The ombudsman and the staff appointed by the ombudsman are in the exempt service under AS 39.25.110 and are not subject to the employment policies under AS 24.10 or AS 24.20.

 (d) Notwithstanding (c) of this section, staff appointed by the ombudsman may be employed under a personal services contract as provided by AS 24.10.060(f).




Sec. 24.55.080. Office facilities and administration.
 (a) Subject to restrictions and limitations imposed by the executive director of the Legislative Affairs Agency, the administrative facilities and services of the Legislative Affairs Agency, including computer, data processing, and teleconference facilities, may be made available to the ombudsman to be used in the management of the office of the ombudsman and to carry out the purposes of this chapter.

 (b) The salary and benefits of the ombudsman and the permanent staff of the ombudsman shall be paid through the same procedures used for payment of the salaries and benefits of other permanent legislative employees.

 (c) The ombudsman shall submit a budget for each fiscal year to the Alaska Legislative Council and the council shall annually submit an estimated budget to the governor for information purposes in the preparation of the executive budget. After reviewing and approving, with or without modifications, the budget submitted by the ombudsman, the council shall submit the approved budget to the finance committees of the legislature.




Article 2. Jurisdiction and Initiation of Investigations.
Sec. 24.55.090. Procedure.
 (a) The ombudsman shall, by regulations adopted under AS 44.62 (Administrative Procedure Act), establish procedures for receiving and processing complaints, conducting investigations, reporting findings, and ensuring that confidential information obtained by the ombudsman in the course of an investigation will not be improperly disclosed.

 (b) The ombudsman may not charge fees for the submission or investigation of complaints.




Sec. 24.55.100. Jurisdiction.
 (a) The ombudsman has jurisdiction to investigate the administrative acts of agencies.

 (b) The ombudsman may exercise the ombudsman’s powers without regard to the finality of an administrative act.




Sec. 24.55.110. Investigation of complaints.
The ombudsman shall investigate any complaint that is an appropriate subject for investigation under AS 24.55.150, unless the ombudsman reasonably believes that
     (1) there is presently available an adequate remedy for the grievance stated in the complaint;

     (2) the complaint relates to a matter that is outside the jurisdiction of the ombudsman;

     (3) the complaint relates to an administrative act of which the complainant has had knowledge for an unreasonable length of time before the complaint was submitted;

     (4) the complainant does not have a sufficient personal interest in the subject matter of the complaint;

     (5) the complaint is trivial or made in bad faith;

     (6) the resources of the ombudsman’s office are insufficient for adequate investigation.




Sec. 24.55.120. Investigation on the ombudsman’s motion.
The ombudsman may investigate the administrative act of an agency on the ombudsman’s own motion if the ombudsman reasonably believes that it is an appropriate subject for investigation under AS 24.55.150.

Sec. 24.55.130. Notice to complainant.
 (a) If the ombudsman decides not to investigate a complaint, the ombudsman shall inform the complainant of that decision and shall state the reasons.

 (b) If the ombudsman decides to investigate a complaint, the ombudsman shall notify the complainant of the decision.

 (c) Notice given under this section may be oral but the ombudsman shall state in writing the reasons for not investigating a complaint if requested by the complainant.




Article 3. Investigations.
Sec. 24.55.140. Notice to the agency.
If the ombudsman decides to investigate a complaint, the ombudsman shall notify the agency of the intention to investigate unless the ombudsman believes that advance notice will unduly hinder the investigation or make it ineffectual. Notice given under this section may be oral or written, at the discretion of the ombudsman.

Sec. 24.55.150. Appropriate subjects for investigation.
 (a) An appropriate subject for investigation by the ombudsman is an administrative act of an agency that the ombudsman has reason to believe might be
     (1) contrary to law;

     (2) unreasonable, unfair, oppressive, arbitrary, capricious, an abuse of discretion, or unnecessarily discriminatory, even though in accordance with law;

     (3) based on a mistake of fact;

     (4) based on improper or irrelevant grounds;

     (5) unsupported by an adequate statement of reasons;

     (6) performed in an inefficient or discourteous manner; or

     (7) otherwise erroneous.

 (b) The ombudsman may investigate to find an appropriate remedy.




Sec. 24.55.160. Investigation procedures; privileged communications.
 (a) In an investigation, the ombudsman may
     (1) make inquiries and obtain information considered necessary;

     (2) enter without notice to inspect the premises of an agency, but only when agency personnel are present;

     (3) hold private hearings; and

     (4) notwithstanding other provisions of law, have access at all times to records of every agency, including confidential records, except sealed court records, production of which may only be compelled by subpoena, and except for records of active criminal investigations and records that could lead to the identity of confidential police informants.

 (b) The ombudsman shall maintain confidentiality with respect to all matters and the identities of the complainants or witnesses coming before the ombudsman except insofar as disclosures may be necessary to enable the ombudsman to carry out duties and to support recommendations. However, the ombudsman may not disclose a confidential record obtained from an agency.

 (c) Disclosure by an agency to the ombudsman under this chapter of a communication that is subject to the attorney-client privilege, or attorney work-product privilege, does not waive the privilege as to any other person. The ombudsman may not disclose a privileged communication provided under this subsection unless the communication is evidence of an act of an agency that the ombudsman reasonably believes is criminal.




Article 4. Procedure and Reports After Investigation.
Sec. 24.55.170. Powers.
 (a) Subject to the privileges that witnesses have in the courts of this state, the ombudsman may compel by subpoena, at a specified time and place, the
     (1) appearance and sworn testimony of a person who the ombudsman reasonably believes may be able to give information relating to a matter under investigation; and

     (2) production by a person of a record or object that the ombudsman reasonably believes may relate to the matter under investigation.

 (b) If a person refuses to comply with a subpoena issued under (a) of this section, the superior court may, on application of the ombudsman, compel obedience by proceedings for contempt in the same manner as in the case of disobedience to the requirements of a subpoena issued by the court or refusal to testify in the court.




Sec. 24.55.180. Consultation.
Before giving an opinion or recommendation that is critical of an agency or person, the ombudsman shall consult with that agency or person. The ombudsman may make a preliminary opinion or recommendation available to the agency or person for review, but the preliminary opinion or recommendation is confidential and may not be disclosed to the public by the agency or person.

Sec. 24.55.190. Procedure after investigation.
 (a) The ombudsman shall report the opinion and recommendations of the ombudsman to an agency if the ombudsman finds, after investigation, that
     (1) a matter should be further considered by the agency;

     (2) an administrative act should be modified or cancelled;

     (3) a statute or regulation on which an administrative act is based should be altered;

     (4) reasons should be given for an administrative act;

     (5) any other action should be taken by the agency;

     (6) there are no grounds for action by the agency; or

     (7) the agency’s act was arbitrary or capricious, constituted an abuse of discretion, or was otherwise erroneous or not in accordance with the law.

 (b) The ombudsman may request the agency to notify the ombudsman, within a specified time, of any action taken on the recommendations.

 (c) The report provided under (a) of this section is confidential and may not be disclosed to the public by the agency. The ombudsman may disclose the report under AS 24.55.200 only after providing notice that the investigation has been concluded
     (1) to the agency; and

     (2) if the investigation was conducted in response to a complaint, to the complainant under AS 24.55.210.




Sec. 24.55.200. Publication of recommendations.
Within a reasonable amount of time after the ombudsman reports the opinion and recommendations to an agency the ombudsman may present the opinion and recommendations to the governor, the legislature, a grand jury, the public or any of these. The ombudsman shall include with the opinion any reply made by the agency.

Sec. 24.55.210. Notice to the complainant.
After a reasonable time has elapsed, the ombudsman shall notify the complainant of the actions taken by the ombudsman and by the agency.

Article 5. Miscellaneous.
Sec. 24.55.220. Misconduct by agency personnel.
If the ombudsman believes there is a breach of duty or misconduct by an officer or employee of an agency in the conduct of the officer’s or employee’s official duties, the ombudsman shall refer the matter to the chief executive officer of the agency or, when appropriate, to a grand jury or to another appropriate official or agency.

Sec. 24.55.230. Annual report.
The ombudsman shall submit to the public an annual report of the ombudsman’s activities under this chapter and notify the legislature that the report is available.

Sec. 24.55.240. Judicial review.
A proceeding or decision of the ombudsman may be reviewed in superior court only to determine if it is contrary to the provisions of this chapter.

Sec. 24.55.250. Immunity of the ombudsman.
A civil action may not be brought against the ombudsman or a member of the ombudsman’s staff for anything done, said, or omitted in performing the ombudsman’s duties or responsibilities under this chapter.

Sec. 24.55.260. Ombudsman’s privilege not to testify or disclose documents.
 (a) The ombudsman and staff of the ombudsman may not testify or be deposed in a judicial or administrative proceeding regarding matters coming to their attention in the exercise of their official duties, except as may be necessary to enforce the provisions of this chapter.

 (b) The records of the ombudsman and staff of the ombudsman, including notes, drafts, and records obtained from an individual or agency during intake, review, or investigation of a complaint, and any reports not released to the public in accordance with AS 24.55.200, are not subject to disclosure or production in response to a subpoena or discovery in a judicial or administrative proceeding, except as the ombudsman determines may be necessary to enforce the provisions of this chapter. Disclosure by the ombudsman is subject to the restrictions on disclosure in AS 24.55.160 — 24.55.190.




Sec. 24.55.270. Letters to or from ombudsman.
A letter to the ombudsman from a person held in custody by an agency shall be forwarded immediately, unopened, to the ombudsman. A letter from the ombudsman to a person held in custody by an agency shall be delivered immediately, unopened, to the person.

Sec. 24.55.275. Procurement procedures.
The ombudsman shall adopt by regulation procurement procedures that are appropriate for the office of the ombudsman and that are similar to those adopted by the legislative council under AS 36.30.020, as they may be amended from time to time. The procedures shall be followed by the office of the ombudsman in contracting for professional and other services, supplies, and office space, and for construction limited to providing and maintaining office space for the office of the ombudsman. However, competitive principles in the procurement procedures adopted by the legislative council under AS 36.30.020 do not apply to contracts for investigations under AS 24.55.100.

Sec. 24.55.280. Time for judicial review of agency action.
This chapter in no way extends the time limit in which judicial review of agency action must be sought.

Article 6. General Provisions.
Sec. 24.55.290. Penalty.
A person who wilfully hinders the lawful actions of the ombudsman or the staff of the ombudsman, or who wilfully refuses to comply with their lawful demands, or who wilfully violates AS 24.55.270, is guilty of a misdemeanor and upon conviction is punishable by a fine of not more than $1,000.

The administrative acts of the ombudsman are not subject to the provisions of AS 44.62 (Administrative Procedure Act), except as provided in AS 24.55.090.

Sec. 24.55.310. Conflict of interest. [Repealed, § 42 ch 127 SLA 1992.]
Sec. 24.55.320. Municipalities and school districts.
A municipality or school district may elect to become subject to the jurisdiction of the ombudsman appointed under this chapter. If a municipality or school district so elects, it shall notify the ombudsman of that election and shall thereafter be considered an agency for the purposes of this chapter. If a municipality or school district subjects itself to the jurisdiction of the ombudsman, the municipality or school district shall pay its pro rata share of the cost of the operation of the office of the ombudsman based on the number of complaints or the case load emanating from that municipality or school district, as prescribed by the ombudsman. If a municipality or school district elects to remove itself from the jurisdiction of the ombudsman, it shall notify the ombudsman of that election and shall not thereafter be considered an agency for the purposes of this chapter. A municipality that elects to become subject to the jurisdiction of the ombudsman or to remove itself from that jurisdiction must do so by ordinance. A school district that elects to become subject to the jurisdiction of the ombudsman or to remove itself from that jurisdiction must do so by resolution.

Sec. 24.55.330. Definitions.
In this chapter,
     (1) “administrative act” means an action, omission, decision, recommendation, practice, policy, or procedure of an agency, but does not include the preparation or presentation of legislation or the substantive content of a judicial order, decision, or opinion;

     (2) “agency” includes a department, office, institution, corporation, authority, organization, commission, committee, council, or board of a municipality or in the executive, legislative, or judicial branches of the state government, and a department, office, institution, corporation, authority, organization, commission, committee, council, or board of a municipality or of the state government independent of the executive, legislative, and judicial branches; it also includes an officer, employee, or member of an “agency” acting or purporting to act in the exercise of official duties, but does not include the governor, the lieutenant governor, a member of the legislature, the victims’ advocate, the staff of the office of victims’ rights, a justice of the supreme court, a judge of the court of appeals, a superior court judge, a district court judge, a magistrate, a member of a city council or borough assembly, an elected city or borough mayor, or a member of an elected school board;

     (3) “record” means a document, paper, memorandum, book, letter, file, drawing, map, plat, photo, photographic file, motion picture, film, microfilm, microphotograph, exhibit, magnetic or paper tape, punched card, or other item developed or received under law or in connection with the transaction of official business, but does not include an attorney’s work product, material that is confidential as a privileged communication between an attorney and client under rules adopted by the supreme court, or confidential oil and gas geological and geophysical data.




Sec. 24.55.340. Short title.
This chapter may be cited as The Ombudsman Act.

Chapter 60. Standards of Conduct.

Article 1. Purpose and Applicability.
Sec. 24.60.010. Legislative findings and purpose.
The legislature finds that
     (1) high moral and ethical standards among public servants in the legislative branch of government are essential to assure the trust, respect, and confidence of the people of this state;

     (2) a fair and open government requires that legislators and legislative employees conduct the public’s business in a manner that preserves the integrity of the legislative process and avoids conflicts of interest or even appearances of conflicts of interest;

     (3) the public’s commitment to a part-time citizen legislature requires legislators be drawn from all parts of society and the best way to attract competent people is to acknowledge that they provide their time and energy to the state, often at substantial personal and financial sacrifice;

     (4) a part-time citizen legislature implies that legislators are expected and permitted to earn outside income and that the rules governing legislators’ conduct during and after leaving public service must be clear, fair, and as complete as possible; the rules, however, should not impose unreasonable or unnecessary burdens that will discourage citizens from entering or staying in government service;

     (5) in order for the rules governing conduct to be respected both during and after leaving public service, the code must be administered fairly without bias or favoritism;

     (6) no code of conduct, however comprehensive, can anticipate all situations in which violations may occur nor can it prescribe behaviors that are appropriate to every situation; in addition, laws and regulations regarding ethical responsibilities cannot legislate morality, eradicate corruption, or eliminate bad judgment;

     (7) compliance with a code of ethics is an individual responsibility; thus all who serve the legislature have a solemn responsibility to avoid improper conduct and prevent improper behavior by colleagues and subordinates;

     (8) the purpose of this chapter is to establish standards of conduct for state legislators and legislative employees and to establish the Select Committee on Legislative Ethics to consider alleged violations of this chapter and to render advisory opinions to persons affected by this chapter;

     (9) a fair and open government requires that constituents have unencumbered access to legislators about issues important to the state under art. I, secs. 5 and 6, Constitution of the State of Alaska, which protect the right of a legislator and a constituent to meet and the right of a person to petition the government, and this chapter is not intended to restrict those rights.




Article 2. Standards of Conduct.
Sec. 24.60.020. Applicability; relationship to common law and other laws.
 (a) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection, this chapter applies to a member of the legislature, to a legislative employee, and to public members of the committee. This chapter does not apply to
     (1) a former member of the legislature or to a person formerly employed by the legislative branch of government unless a provision of this chapter specifically states that it applies;

     (2) a person elected to the legislature who at the time of election is not a member of the legislature.

 (b) The provisions of this chapter specifically supersede the provisions of the common law relating to legislative conflict of interest that may apply to a member of the legislature or a legislative employee. This chapter does not supersede or repeal provisions of the criminal laws of the state. This chapter does not exempt a person from applicable provisions of another law unless the law is expressly superseded or incompatibly inconsistent with the specific provisions of this chapter.




Sec. 24.60.030. Prohibited conduct and conflicts of interest.
 (a) A legislator or legislative employee may not
     (1) solicit, agree to accept, or accept a benefit other than official compensation for the performance of public duties; this paragraph may not be construed to prohibit lawful solicitation for and acceptance of campaign contributions, solicitation or acceptance of contributions for a charity event, as defined in AS 24.60.080(a)(2)(B), or the acceptance of a gift under AS 24.60.075 or 24.60.080;

     (2) use public funds, facilities, equipment, services, or another government asset or resource for a nonlegislative purpose, for involvement in or support of or opposition to partisan political activity, or for the private benefit of the legislator, legislative employee, or another person; this paragraph does not prohibit
          (A) limited use of state property and resources for personal purposes if the use does not interfere with the performance of public duties and either the cost or value related to the use is nominal or the legislator or legislative employee reimburses the state for the cost of the use;

          (B) the use of mailing lists, computer data, or other information lawfully obtained from a government agency and available to the general public for nonlegislative purposes;

          (C) the legislative council, notwithstanding AS 24.05.190, from designating a public facility for use by legislators and legislative employees for health or fitness purposes; when the council designates a facility to be used by legislators and legislative employees for health or fitness purposes, it shall adopt guidelines governing access to and use of the facility; the guidelines may establish times in which use of the facility is limited to specific groups;

          (D) a legislator from using the legislator’s private office in the capital city during a legislative session, and for the 10 days immediately before and the 10 days immediately after a legislative session, for nonlegislative purposes if the use does not interfere with the performance of public duties and if there is no cost to the state for the use of the space and equipment, other than utility costs and minimal wear and tear, or the legislator promptly reimburses the state for the cost; an office is considered a legislator’s private office under this subparagraph if it is the primary space in the capital city reserved for use by the legislator, whether or not it is shared with others;

          (E) a legislator from use of legislative employees to prepare and send out seasonal greeting cards;

          (F) a legislator from using state resources to transport computers or other office equipment owned by the legislator but primarily used for a state function;

          (G) use by a legislator of photographs of that legislator;

          (H) reasonable use of the Internet by a legislator or a legislative employee except if the use is for election campaign purposes;

          (I) a legislator or legislative employee from soliciting, accepting, or receiving a gift on behalf of a recognized, nonpolitical charitable organization in a state facility;

          (J) a legislator from sending any communication in the form of a newsletter to the legislator’s constituents, except a communication expressly advocating the election or defeat of a candidate or a newsletter or material in a newsletter that is clearly only for the private benefit of a legislator or a legislative employee; or

          (K) full participation in a charity event approved in advance by the Alaska Legislative Council;

     (3) knowingly seek, accept, use, allocate, grant, or award public funds for a purpose other than that approved by law, or make a false statement in connection with a claim, request, or application for compensation, reimbursement, or travel allowances from public funds;

     (4) require a legislative employee to perform services for the private benefit of the legislator or employee at any time, or allow a legislative employee to perform services for the private benefit of a legislator or employee on government time; it is not a violation of this paragraph if the services were performed in an unusual or infrequent situation and the person’s services were reasonably necessary to permit the legislator or legislative employee to perform official duties;

     (5) use or authorize the use of state funds, facilities, equipment, services, or another government asset or resource for the purpose of political fund raising or campaigning; this paragraph does not prohibit
          (A) limited use of state property and resources for personal purposes if the use does not interfere with the performance of public duties and either the cost or value related to the use is nominal or the legislator or legislative employee reimburses the state for the cost of the use;

          (B) the use of mailing lists, computer data, or other information lawfully obtained from a government agency and available to the general public for nonlegislative purposes;

          (C) storing or maintaining, consistent with (b) of this section, election campaign records in a legislator’s office;

          (D) a legislator from using the legislator’s private office in the capital city during a legislative session, and for the 10 days immediately before and the 10 days immediately after a legislative session, for nonlegislative purposes if the use does not interfere with the performance of public duties and if there is no cost to the state for the use of the space and equipment, other than utility costs and minimal wear and tear, or the legislator promptly reimburses the state for the cost; an office is considered a legislator’s private office under this subparagraph if it is the primary space in the capital city reserved for use by the legislator, whether or not it is shared with others; or

          (E) use by a legislator of photographs of that legislator.

 (b) A legislative employee may not on government time assist in political party or candidate activities, campaigning, or fund raising. A legislator may not require an employee to perform an act in violation of this subsection.

 (c) Unless approved by the committee, during a campaign period for an election in which the legislator or legislative employee is a candidate, a legislator or legislative employee may not use or permit another to use state funds, other than funds to which the legislator is entitled under AS 24.10.110, to print or distribute a political mass mailing to individuals eligible to vote for the candidate. In this subsection,
     (1) a “campaign period” is the period that
          (A) begins 60 days before the date of an election to the board of an electric or telephone cooperative organized under AS 10.25, a municipal election, or a primary election, or that begins on the date of the governor’s proclamation calling a special election; and

          (B) ends the day after the cooperative election, municipal election, or general or special election;

     (2) a mass mailing is considered to be political if it is from or about a legislator, legislative employee, or another person who is a candidate for election or reelection to the legislature or another federal, state, or municipal office or to the board of an electric or telephone cooperative.

 (d) A legislator, legislative employee, or another person on behalf of the legislator or legislative employee, or a campaign committee of the legislator or legislative employee, may not distribute or post campaign literature, placards, posters, fund-raising notices, or other communications intended to influence the election of a candidate in an election in public areas in a facility ordinarily used to conduct state government business. This prohibition applies whether or not the election has been concluded. However, a legislator may post, in the legislator’s private office, communications related to an election that has been concluded.

 (e) A legislator may not directly, or by authorizing another to act on the legislator’s behalf,
     (1) agree to, threaten to, or state or imply that the legislator will take or withhold a legislative, administrative, or political action, including support for or opposition to a bill, employment, nominations, and appointments, as a result of a person’s decision to provide or not provide a political contribution, donate or not donate to a cause favored by the legislator, or provide or not provide a thing of value;

     (2) state or imply that the legislator will perform or refrain from performing a lawful constituent service as a result of a person’s decision to provide or not provide a political contribution, donate or not donate to a cause favored by the legislator, or provide or not provide a thing of value; or

     (3) unless required by the Uniform Rules of the Alaska State Legislature, take or withhold legislative action that is likely to substantially benefit or harm the financial interest of the legislator, the legislator’s spouse, or a person with whom the legislator or the legislator’s spouse is employed or is negotiating for employment.

 (f) A legislative employee may not serve in a position that requires confirmation by the legislature. A legislator or legislative employee who serves on a board of an organization, including a governmental entity, shall disclose the board membership to the committee. A person required to make a disclosure under this subsection shall file the disclosure with the committee by the deadlines set out in AS 24.60.105 stating the name of each organization on whose board the person serves. The committee shall maintain a public record of the disclosure and forward the disclosure to the appropriate house for inclusion in the journal. This subsection does not require a legislator or legislative employee who is appointed to a board by the presiding officer to make a disclosure of the appointment to the committee if the appointment has been published in the appropriate legislative journal during the calendar year.

 (g) Unless otherwise required by the Uniform Rules of the Alaska State Legislature, a legislator shall declare a conflict of interest before voting on a question before a committee of the legislature, and shall request to be excused from voting on a question before a house of the legislature if the effect of the vote is likely to substantially benefit or harm the financial interest of the legislator, the legislator’s spouse, or a person with whom the legislator or the legislator’s spouse is employed or is negotiating for employment.

 (h) An employee who engages in political campaign activities other than incidental campaign activities during the employee’s work day shall take leave for the period of campaigning. Political campaign activities while on government time are permissible if the activities are part of the normal legislative duties of the employee, including answering telephone calls and handling incoming correspondence.

 (i) A legislator or legislative employee may not attempt to influence the outcome of an administrative hearing by directly or indirectly contacting or attempting to contact the hearing officer assigned to the hearing or the individual, board, or commission with authority to make the final decision in the matter unless
     (1) the legislator or legislative employee is representing another person for compensation subject to AS 24.60.100 and as a professional who is licensed in the state;

     (2) the contact is made in the presence of all parties to the hearing or the parties’ representatives while the legislator or legislative employee is acting as a party or a witness in the matter or responding to a question asked of the legislator or legislative employee by the hearing officer, individual, board, or commission and the contact is made a part of the record; or

     (3) the contact is inadvertent and ex parte and the legislator or legislative employee
          (A) promptly discloses the fact and substance of the contact
               (i) directly to each party to the hearing whose identity as a party is public information; or

               (ii) through the hearing officer for each party to the hearing whose identity as a party is not public information; and

          (B) makes the fact and substance of the contact part of the record.

 (j) In this section,
     (1) “administrative hearing” means a quasi-judicial hearing before an agency; “administrative hearing” does not include an informal conference or review held by an agency before a final decision is issued or a rate-making proceeding or other nonadjudicative public hearing;

     (2) “financial interest” means a substantial equity or ownership interest in a business, investment, real property, lease, or other enterprise;

     (3) “substantially benefit or harm” means the effect on the person’s financial interest is greater than the effect on the financial interest of a substantial class of persons to which the person belongs as a member of a profession, occupation, industry, or region.




Sec. 24.60.031. Restrictions on fund raising.
 (a) A legislative employee may not
     (1) on a day when either house of the legislature is in regular or special session, solicit or accept a contribution or a promise or pledge to make a contribution for a campaign for state or municipal office; however, a legislative employee may, except in the capital city or in the municipality in which the legislature is convened in special session if the legislature is convened in a municipality other than the capital city, solicit or accept a contribution, promise, or pledge for a campaign for state or municipal office that occurs during the 90 days immediately preceding the election for that office; or

     (2) accept money from an event held on a day when either house of the legislature is in regular or special session if a substantial purpose of the event is to raise money on behalf of the legislative employee for political purposes; however, this paragraph does not prohibit a legislative employee from accepting money from an event held in a place other than the capital city or a municipality in which the legislature is convened in special session if the legislature is convened in a municipality other than the capital city during the 90 days immediately preceding an election for state or municipal public office in which the legislative employee is a candidate.

 (b) A legislator may not
     (1) on a day when either house of the legislature is in regular or special session, solicit or accept a contribution or a promise or pledge to make a contribution
          (A) for the legislator’s own campaign for state or municipal public office, unless the solicitation, acceptance, promise, or pledge occurs in a place other than the capital city or a municipality in which the legislature is convened in special session if the legislature is convened in a municipality other than the capital city during the 90 days immediately preceding the election in which the legislator is a candidate;

          (B) for another candidate in an election for municipal, state, or federal office;

          (C) to influence a state ballot proposition or question; or

          (D) for a political party;

     (2) accept money from an event held on a day when either house of the legislature is in regular or special session if a substantial purpose of the event is to raise money on behalf of the legislator’s campaign for state or municipal public office; however, this paragraph does not prohibit a legislator from accepting money from an event held in a place other than the capital city or a municipality in which the legislature is convened in special session if the legislature is convened in a municipality other than the capital city during the 90 days immediately preceding a state or municipal election in which the legislator is a candidate; or

     (3) in a campaign for state or municipal office, expend money that was raised on a day when either house of the legislature was in a legislative session by or on behalf of a legislator under a declaration of candidacy or a general letter of intent to become a candidate for public office; however, this paragraph does not apply to money raised in a place other than the capital city or a municipality in which the legislature is convened in special session if the legislature is convened in a municipality other than the capital city during the 90 days immediately preceding an election in which the legislator is a candidate.

 (c) In this section, “contribution” has the meaning given in AS 15.13.400.




Sec. 24.60.033. Restrictions on employee candidacies.
A legislative employee may not file a letter of intent to become a candidate or file a declaration of candidacy for the legislature.

Sec. 24.60.035. Protection of whistle blowers.
A legislator or legislative employee may not, directly or indirectly, subject a person who reports to the committee or another government entity conduct the person reasonably believes is a violation of this chapter or another state law, to reprisal, harassment, or discrimination. A legislative employee who is discharged, disciplined, involuntarily transferred, or otherwise penalized by a legislator or another legislative employee in violation of this subsection may
     (1) bring a complaint before the committee; and

     (2) bring a separate civil action in the courts seeking damages, payment of back wages, reinstatement, or other relief.




Sec. 24.60.037. Open meetings guidelines.
 (a) A meeting of a legislative body is open to the public in accordance with the open meetings guidelines established in this section. A legislator may not participate in a meeting held in violation of these open meetings guidelines.

 (b) For purposes of the legislative open meetings guidelines, a meeting occurs when a majority of the members of a legislative body is present and action, including voting, is taken or could be taken, or if a primary purpose of the meeting is the discussion of legislation or state policy. The Uniform Rules of the Alaska State Legislature control the procedure for conducting open and executive sessions of a legislative body.

 (c) Legislators may meet in a closed caucus or in a private, informal meeting to discuss and deliberate on political strategy. Those meetings are exempt from the legislative open meetings guidelines. For purposes of this subsection, “political strategy” includes organization of the houses, assignment of committee membership, scheduling of bills, vehicles for adoptions, house-senate relations, other procedural matters, caucus operations, meetings between majority and minority caucus leaders, meetings between majority and minority caucus leaders of both houses, meetings with the governor, deliberations with regard to political strategy, and discussions of issues in the context of political strategy.

 (d) [Repealed, § 74 ch 47 SLA 2007.]
 (e) In cases where there are conflicts between these guidelines and the uniform rules adopted by the Alaska State Legislature, the uniform rules prevail.

 (f) The legislative open meetings guidelines are the guidelines that shall be used by the committee when considering complaints filed regarding open meetings.

 (g) In the legislative open meetings guidelines,
     (1) “caucus” means a group of legislators who share a political philosophy, or have a common goal, and who organize as a group;

     (2) “legislative body”
          (A) includes
               (i) the senate;

               (ii) the house of representatives;

               (iii) the senate and the house of representatives meeting in joint session;

               (iv) a committee of the legislature, other than the Committee on Committees, but including a standing committee, special committee, joint committee, conference or free conference committee, committee of the whole, and permanent interim committee;

               (v) a legislative commission, task force, or other group established by statute or resolution; or

               (vi) a caucus of members of one or more of the bodies set out in (i) — (v) of this subparagraph;

          (B) does not include
               (i) any committee or group of legislators considering only matters involving the organization of a committee or a house of the legislature, including selection of legislative officers;

               (ii) any committee or group of legislators and the governor or staff of the Office of the Governor;

               (iii) legislative leadership meetings;

               (iv) officers of a caucus;

     (3) “meeting” does not include
          (A) a gathering of members of a legislative body for primarily ministerial or social purposes; or

          (B) forums where members of a legislative body have been invited to address a group on legislative issues or concerns.




Sec. 24.60.039. Discrimination prohibited.
 (a) A legislator or legislative employee may not engage in acts of discrimination in violation of AS 18.80.220.

 (b) If a person files a complaint with the committee under AS 24.60.170 alleging a violation of this section, the committee may refer the complainant to the State Commission for Human Rights and may defer its consideration of the complaint until after the complainant establishes to the satisfaction of the committee that the commission has completed its proceedings in the matter.




Sec. 24.60.040. Contracts or leases.
 (a) A legislator or legislative employee, or a member of the immediate family of a legislator or legislative employee, may not be a party to or have an interest in a state contract or lease unless the contract or lease is let under AS 36.30 (State Procurement Code) or, for agencies that are not subject to AS 36.30, under similar procedures, or the total annual amount of the state contract or lease is $5,000 or less, or is a standardized contract or lease that was developed under publicly established guidelines and is generally available to the public at large, members of a profession, occupation, or group. A person has an interest in a state contract or lease under this section if the person receives direct or indirect financial benefits. A legislator or legislative employee who participates in, or who knows or reasonably should know that a family member is participating in, a state contract or lease that has an annual value of $5,000 or more shall disclose the participation to the committee by the date required under AS 24.60.105. The committee shall promptly forward the disclosure to the appropriate house for inclusion in the journal, and the presiding officer shall cause the disclosure to be published in the journal or in the supplemental journal not later than the next regularly scheduled publication of ethics disclosures. The legislator or legislative employee shall also disclose the renegotiation of a state contract or lease if the original had to be disclosed under this section or if, as a result of renegotiation, disclosure is required under this section. The disclosure must state the amount of the contract or lease and the name of the state agency issuing the contract or lease and must identify the procedures under which the contract or lease was issued. If the disclosure concerns a contract or lease in which a family member of the discloser is participating, the disclosure must identify the relationship between the participant and the discloser.

 (b) This section does not apply to a contract or lease issued under a state program or loan that is subject to AS 24.60.050. A grant that results in a contract but that is not subject to AS 24.60.050 is subject to this section.

 (c) In this section, “direct or indirect financial benefits” means income, profits, or other financial benefits under a state contract, without regard to whether the income, profits, or other financial benefits ensue to the person as a partner, shareholder, investor, agent, employee, consultant, or joint venturer of the contractor.




Sec. 24.60.045. Hazardous waste contracts. [Repealed, § 42 ch 127 SLA 1992.]
Sec. 24.60.050. State programs and loans.
 (a) A legislator or legislative employee may, without disclosure to the committee, participate in a state benefit program or receive a loan from the state if the program or loan is generally available to members of the public, is subject to fixed, objective eligibility standards, and requires minimal discretion in determining qualification.

 (b) The committee shall review state benefit programs and state loans and annually publish a list of programs and loans, designating which ones do not meet the standards of (a) of this section.

 (c) A legislator or legislative employee who participates in a program or receives a loan that is not exempt from disclosure under (a) of this section shall file with the committee by the date required under AS 24.60.105 a disclosure stating the amounts of the loans outstanding or benefits received during the preceding calendar year from nonqualifying programs. If the committee requests additional information necessary to determine the propriety of participating in the program or receiving the loan, it shall be promptly provided. The committee shall maintain the disclosure as a public record and promptly forward the information contained in the disclosure to the presiding officer of each house who shall have it published in the supplemental journals on or before the next regularly scheduled publication of ethics disclosures. If a legislator or legislative employee asks the committee to keep any part of the disclosure confidential and a quorum of the committee determines by vote of a majority of committee members that making the entire disclosure public would cause an unjustifiable invasion of personal privacy, the committee may elect to publish only the fact that a person has participated in the program and the amount of benefit that the unnamed person received. The committee shall maintain the disclosure of the name of the person as confidential and may only use the disclosure in a proceeding under AS 24.60.170. If the disclosure becomes part of the record of a proceeding under AS 24.60.170, the disclosure may be made public as provided in that section.

 (d) If loan proceeds or other program benefits are received from nonqualifying programs or loans after the end of a calendar year, the legislator or legislative employee shall file a statement with the committee within 30 days after the beginning of participation in the state program or receipt of proceeds from the state loan or by the date required under AS 24.60.105, whichever is later. If the committee receives the statement while the legislature is in session, it shall promptly forward the statement to the chief clerk of the house or the secretary of the senate, as appropriate, who shall cause it to be published in the supplemental journal. If the committee receives a statement while the legislature is not in session, it shall forward the statement to the chief clerk of the house or the secretary of the senate for publication when the legislature next convenes.

 (e) If the committee determines that a legislator or legislative employee received a state benefit or loan as a result of unfair or improper influence, the committee may initiate a complaint or take other appropriate action. In addition, the committee shall refer the matter to the attorney general for action under other civil or criminal laws.

 (f) The committee shall annually recommend to the Legislative Budget and Audit Committee the programs and loans to be audited by the division of legislative audit during the following year, including the scope of the audit. The records of the relevant state agencies shall be made available to the division of legislative audit. The division of legislative audit shall prepare a report to the Legislative Budget and Audit Committee on its findings. The report is confidential until it is released by the Legislative Budget and Audit Committee.




Sec. 24.60.060. Confidential information.
 (a) A legislator, legislative employee, or public member of the committee may not knowingly make an unauthorized disclosure of information that is made confidential by law and that the person acquired in the course of official duties. A person who violates this section is subject to a proceeding under AS 24.60.170 and may be subject to prosecution under AS 11.56.860 or another law.

 (b) A legislator or legislative employee who is the subject of a complaint under AS 24.60.170 violates this section if the legislator or legislative employee violates a protective order issued under AS 24.60.170(i).




Sec. 24.60.070. Disclosure of close economic associations.
 (a) A legislator or legislative employee shall disclose to the committee, which shall maintain a public record of the disclosure and forward the disclosure to the respective house for inclusion in the journal, the formation or maintenance of a close economic association involving a substantial financial matter with
     (1) a supervisor who is not a member of the legislature who has responsibility or authority, either directly or indirectly, over the person’s employment, including preparing or reviewing performance evaluations, or granting or approving pay raises or promotions; this paragraph does not apply to a public member of the committee;

     (2) legislators;

     (3) a public official as that term is defined in AS 39.50;

     (4) a registered lobbyist; or

     (5) a legislative employee if the person required to make the disclosure is a legislator.

 (b) A legislator or legislative employee required to make a disclosure under this section shall make a disclosure by the date set under AS 24.60.105 of the legislator’s or legislative employee’s close economic associations then in existence. A disclosure under this section must be sufficiently detailed that a reader of the disclosure can ascertain the nature of the association.

 (c) When making a disclosure under (a) of this section concerning a relationship with a lobbyist to whom the legislative employee is married or who is the legislative employee’s domestic partner, the legislative employee shall also disclose the name and address of each employer of the lobbyist and the total monetary value received by the lobbyist from the lobbyist’s employer. The legislative employee shall report changes in the employer of the spouse or domestic partner within 48 hours after the change. In this subsection, “employer of the lobbyist” means the person from whom the lobbyist received amounts or things of value for engaging in lobbying on behalf of the person.

 (d) In this section, “close economic association” means a financial relationship that exists between a person covered by this chapter and some other person or entity, including but not limited to relationships where the person covered by this chapter serves as a consultant or advisor to, is a member or representative of, or has a financial interest in, any association, partnership, business, or corporation.




Sec. 24.60.075. Compassionate gift exemption.
 (a) Notwithstanding AS 24.45.121 and AS 24.60.080, a person may give a compassionate gift to a legislator or legislative employee, and a legislator or a legislative employee may solicit, receive, or accept a compassionate gift from a person, subject to the limitations in (b) — (e) of this section.

 (b) A compassionate gift may not be solicited, accepted, or received unless a written request has been approved in writing by the chair of the legislative council, and the committee chair or vice-chair has approved in writing the decision of the chair of the legislative council.

 (c) A legislator or legislative employee who receives a compassionate gift, directly or indirectly, shall disclose to the committee the name of the gift’s source and the value of the gift within 30 days after receipt.

 (d) In this section, the value of a gift shall be determined by the fair market value of the gift, to the extent that the fair market value can be determined.

 (e) In this section, “compassionate gift” means a solicited or unsolicited gift intended to aid or comfort a recipient or a member of the recipient’s immediate family in contending with a catastrophe, a tragedy, or a health-related emergency.




Sec. 24.60.080. Gifts.
 (a) Except as otherwise provided in this section, a legislator or legislative employee may not
     (1) solicit, accept, or receive, directly or indirectly, a gift worth $250 or more, whether in the form of money, services, a loan, travel, entertainment, hospitality, promise, or other form, or gifts from the same person worth less than $250 that in a calendar year aggregate to $250 or more in value;

     (2) solicit, accept, or receive a gift with any monetary value from a lobbyist, an immediate family member of a lobbyist, or a person acting on behalf of a lobbyist, except
          (A) food or nonalcoholic beverage for immediate consumption
               (i) with a value of $15 or less; or

               (ii) provided as part of an event that is open to all legislators or legislative employees;

          (B) a contribution to a charity event, tickets to a charity event, and gifts to which the tickets may entitle the bearer; however, under this subparagraph a legislator or legislative employee may not solicit, accept, or receive from the same lobbyist, an immediate family member of the lobbyist, or a person acting on behalf of the lobbyist, tickets to a charity event, gifts to which the tickets may entitle the bearer, or both, that in a calendar year aggregate to $250 or more in value; in this subparagraph, “charity event” means an event the proceeds of which go to a charitable organization with tax- free status under 26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3) and that the Alaska legislative council has approved in advance; the tickets may entitle the bearer to admission to the event, to entertainment, to food or beverages, or to other gifts or services in connection with the charity event;

          (C) a gift that is unconnected with the recipient’s legislative status and is from a member of the legislator’s or legislative employee’s immediate family;

          (D) a gift delivered on the premises of a state facility and accepted on behalf of a recognized nonpolitical charitable organization; or

          (E) a compassionate gift under AS 24.60.075.

 (b) [Repealed, § 42 ch 127 SLA 1992.]
 (c) Notwithstanding (a)(1) of this section, it is not a violation of this section for a person who is a legislator or legislative employee to accept
     (1) hospitality, other than hospitality described in (4) of this subsection,
          (A) with incidental transportation at the residence of a person; however, a vacation home located outside the state is not considered a residence for the purposes of this subparagraph; or

          (B) at a social event or meal;

     (2) discounts that are available
          (A) generally to the public or to a large class of persons to which the person belongs; or

          (B) when on official state business, but only if receipt of the discount benefits the state;

     (3) food or foodstuffs indigenous to the state that are shared generally as a cultural or social norm;

     (4) travel and hospitality primarily for the purpose of obtaining information on matters of legislative concern;

     (5) gifts from the immediate family of the person; in this paragraph, “immediate family” means
          (A) the spouse of the person;

          (B) the person’s domestic partner;

          (C) a child, including a stepchild and an adopted child, of the person or of the person’s domestic partner;

          (D) a parent, sibling, grandparent, aunt, or uncle of the person;

          (E) a parent, sibling, grandparent, aunt, or uncle of the person’s spouse or the person’s domestic partner; and

          (F) a stepparent, stepsister, stepbrother, step-grandparent, step-aunt, or step-uncle of the person, the person’s spouse, or the person’s domestic partner;

     (6) gifts that are not connected with the recipient’s legislative status;

     (7) a discount for all or part of a legislative session, including time immediately preceding or following the session, or other gift to welcome a legislator or legislative employee who is employed on the personal staff of a legislator or by a standing or special committee to the capital city or in recognition of the beginning of a legislative session if the gift or discount is available generally to all legislators and the personal staff of legislators and staff of standing and special committees; this paragraph does not apply to legislative employees who are employed by the Legislative Affairs Agency, the office of the chief clerk, the office of the senate secretary, the legislative budget and audit committee, the office of victims’ rights, or the office of the ombudsman;

     (8) a gift of legal services in a matter of legislative concern and a gift of other services related to the provision of legal services in a matter of legislative concern;

     (9) a gift of transportation from a legislator or a legislative employee to a legislator or a legislative employee if the transportation takes place in the state on or in an aircraft, boat, motor vehicle, or other means of transport owned or under the control of the donor; this paragraph does not apply to travel described in (4) of this subsection or travel for political campaign purposes; or

     (10) a contribution to a charity event, a ticket to a charity event, or a gift in connection with a charity event; in this paragraph, “charity event” has the meaning given in (a)(2)(B) of this section.

 (d) A legislator or legislative employee who accepts a gift under (c)(4) of this section that has a value of $250 or more or a ticket to a charity event or gift in connection with a charity event under (c)(10) of this section that has a value of $250 or more shall disclose to the committee, within 60 days after receipt of the gift, the name and occupation of the donor and the approximate value of the gift. A legislator or legislative employee who accepts a gift under (c)(8) of this section that the recipient expects will have a value of $250 or more in the calendar year shall disclose to the committee, within 30 days after receipt of the gift, the name and occupation of the donor, a general description of the matter of legislative concern with respect to which the gift is made, and the approximate value of the gift. The committee shall maintain a public record of the disclosures it receives relating to gifts under (c)(4), (c)(8), (c)(10), and (i) of this section and shall forward the disclosures to the appropriate house for inclusion in the journal. The committee shall forward to the Alaska Public Offices Commission copies of the disclosures concerning gifts under (c)(4), (c)(8), (c)(10), and (i) of this section that it receives from legislators and legislative directors. A legislator or legislative employee who accepts a gift under (c)(6) of this section that has a value of $250 or more shall, within 30 days after receiving the gift, disclose to the committee the name and occupation of the donor and a description of the gift. The committee shall maintain disclosures relating to gifts under (c)(6) of this section as confidential records and may only use, or permit a committee employee or contractor to use, a disclosure under (c)(6) of this section in the investigation of a possible violation of this section or in a proceeding under AS 24.60.170. If the disclosure under (c)(6) of this section becomes part of the record of a proceeding under AS 24.60.170, the confidentiality provisions of that section apply to the disclosure.

 (e) A political contribution is not a gift under this section if it is reported under AS 15.13.040 or is exempt from the reporting requirement under AS 15.13.040(g). The use of a bulk mailing permit owned by a legislator’s campaign committee or used in a legislator’s election campaign is not a gift to that legislator under this section.

 (f) Notwithstanding (a) of this section, a legislator or legislative employee may accept a gift of property worth $250 or more, other than money, from another government or from an official of another government if the person accepts the gift on behalf of the legislature. The person shall, within 60 days after receiving the gift, deliver the gift to the legislative council, which shall determine the appropriate disposition of the gift. In this subsection, “another government” means a foreign government or the government of the United States, another state, a municipality, or another jurisdiction.

 (g) Notwithstanding (a) of this section, a legislator or legislative employee may solicit, accept, or receive a gift on behalf of a recognized, nonpolitical charitable organization.

 (h) A legislator, a legislative committee other than the Select Committee on Legislative Ethics, or a legislative agency may accept a gift of (1) volunteer services for legislative purposes so long as the person making the gift of services is not receiving compensation from another source for the services, or (2) the services of a legislative intern who is participating in an educational program approved by the committee if the services are used for legislative purposes. The committee shall approve training under a program of the University of Alaska and training under 29 U.S.C. 2801 — 2945 (Workforce Investment Act of 1998).

 (i) A legislator or legislative employee who knows or reasonably should know that an immediate family member has received a gift because of the family member’s connection with the legislator or legislative employee shall disclose for publication under (d) of this section the receipt of the gift by the family member to the committee if the gift would have to be disclosed under this section if it had been received by the legislator or legislative employee. If receipt of the gift by a person who is a legislator or legislative employee would be prohibited under this section, a member of the person’s immediate family may not receive the gift.

 (j) In this section, the value of a gift shall be determined by the fair market value of the gift to the extent that the fair market value can be determined.

 (k) [Repealed, § 74 ch 47 SLA 2007.]




Sec. 24.60.085. Restrictions on earned income and honoraria.
 (a) A legislator or legislative employee may not
     (1) seek or accept compensation for personal services that is significantly greater than the value of the services rendered taking into account the higher rates generally charged by specialists in a profession; or

     (2) accept a payment of anything of value, except for actual and necessarily incurred travel expenses, for an appearance or speech by the legislator or legislative employee; this paragraph does not apply to the salary paid to a legislator or legislative employee for making an appearance or speech as part of the legislator’s or legislative employee’s normal course of employment.

 (b) Notwithstanding (a) of this section, a legislator or legislative employee may accept a payment for an appearance or speech if the appearance or speech is not connected with the person’s legislative status.

 (c) During the term for which elected or appointed, a legislator may not, directly or by authorizing another to act on the legislator’s behalf, accept or agree to accept compensation, except from the State of Alaska, for work associated with legislative action, administrative action, or political action. Notwithstanding AS 24.60.990, in this subsection, “administrative action” and “legislative action” have the meanings given in AS 24.45.171.




Sec. 24.60.090. Nepotism.
 (a) An individual who is related to a member of the legislature may not be employed for compensation (1) during the legislative session in the house in which the legislator is a member, (2) by an agency of the legislature established under AS 24.20, (3) in either house during the interim between sessions, or (4), whether for compensation or not, by the committee. An individual who is related to a legislative employee may not be employed in a position over which the employee has supervisory authority. In this subsection, “an individual who is related to” means a member of the legislator’s or legislative employee’s immediate family or a person who is a legislator’s or legislative employee’s domestic partner living together in a conjugal relationship not a legal marriage with the legislator or legislative employee, and “interim between sessions” means the period beginning on the eighth day after the legislature adjourns from a regular session, and ending eight days before the date that the legislature shall convene under AS 24.05.090.

 (b) [Repealed, § 42 ch 127 SLA 1992.]
 (c) [Repealed, § 42 ch 127 SLA 1992.]




Sec. 24.60.100. Representation.
A legislator or legislative employee who represents another person for compensation before an agency, board, or commission of the state shall disclose the name of the person represented, the subject matter of the representation, and the body before which the representation is to take place to the committee. The disclosure shall be made by the deadlines set out in AS 24.60.105. The committee shall maintain a public record of a disclosure under this section and forward the disclosure to the respective house for inclusion in the journal. A legislator or legislative employee may not represent another person for compensation before an agency, committee, or other entity of the legislative branch.

Sec. 24.60.105. Deadlines for filing disclosures; requests to refrain from disclosure.
 (a) When a legislator or legislative employee is required to file a disclosure under this chapter and a date by which the disclosure must be filed is not otherwise set by statute, the deadline for filing the disclosure shall be 30 days after the commencement of the matter or interest or the date the legislator or legislative employee first becomes subject to this chapter, whichever comes later.

 (b) Disclosures under the following statutes are subject to the deadlines set out in this section:
     (1) service on the board of an organization as set out in AS 24.60.030(f);

     (2) an interest in a state contract or lease under AS 24.60.040 and the renegotiation of the terms of a state contract or lease that materially affect the obligations of either party;

     (3) participation in a state program or receipt of a state loan under AS 24.60.050 and the renegotiation of the terms of the program or loan if the renegotiation materially affects the obligations of either party;

     (4) formation or maintenance of a close economic association under AS 24.60.070;

     (5) representation of a client under AS 24.60.100.

 (c) In addition to the filing requirements under (a) and (b) of this section, the disclosures under (b) of this section shall be made annually, in a report filed with the committee within 30 days after the first day of the regular legislative session.

 (d) A person may submit a written request to refrain from making a disclosure that is required by this chapter if making the disclosure would violate state or federal law, including the United States Constitution and the Constitution of the State of Alaska, or a rule, adopted formally by a trade or profession, that state or federal law requires the person to follow. The committee shall approve or deny the request, or require further justification from the person making the request. At the request of the committee or a person authorized to act on behalf of the committee, a person who seeks to refrain from making a disclosure under this subsection shall provide the committee with justification in writing, and the committee may review the written justification to determine whether it is sufficient.




Sec. 24.60.110. Action on a conflict of interest. [Repealed, § 42 ch 127 SLA 1992.]
Sec. 24.60.112. Applicability to legislative interns, volunteers, consultants, and independent contractors.
 (a) A legislative intern or legislative volunteer shall comply with AS 24.60.030 – 24.60.039, 24.60.060, 24.60.080, 24.60.085, and 24.60.155, and the committee shall apply AS 24.60.158 – 24.60.170, 24.60.176, and 24.60.178 to a legislative intern or legislative volunteer.

 (b) A legislative consultant or legislative independent contractor shall comply with AS 24.60.030(a)(1) and (3), 24.60.031(a), 24.60.033, 24.60.060, and 24.60.080(a), (c)(1) – (6), (g), and (j), and the committee shall apply AS 24.60.158 – 24.60.170, 24.60.176, and 24.60.178 to a legislative consultant or legislative independent contractor.

 (c) If a person believes that a legislative intern, legislative volunteer, legislative consultant, or legislative independent contractor has violated a provision of this chapter that is made applicable by this section, the person may file a complaint under AS 24.60.170.




Sec. 24.60.115. Disclosure required of a legislator, legislative employee, or public member of the committee after final day of service.
A person serving as a legislator, legislative employee, or public member of the committee shall, not later than 90 days after the person’s final day of service as a legislator, legislative employee, or public member, file a final disclosure of every matter or interest, except for a matter or interest subject to disclosure under AS 24.60.200, that was subject to disclosure under this chapter while the person was serving, unless the person previously disclosed the matter or interest and, for that reason, the matter or interest is no longer subject to disclosure. Nothing in this section excuses the filing of a disclosure or report as may be required by another section of this chapter.

Sec. 24.60.120. State property and funds. [Repealed, § 42 ch 127 SLA 1992.]
Article 3. Legislative Ethics Committee; Opinions; Complaints.
Sec. 24.60.130. Select committee on legislative ethics.
 (a) There is established as a permanent interim committee within the legislative branch of state government the Select Committee on Legislative Ethics.

 (b) The committee consists of nine members, in two subcommittees, as follows:
     (1) the senate subcommittee, which consists of two members of the senate, one of whom shall be a member of the minority organizational caucus, if any, appointed by the president of the senate with the concurrence by roll call vote of two-thirds of the full membership of the senate, and includes the five public members appointed under (3) of this subsection;

     (2) the house subcommittee, which consists of two members of the house, one of whom shall be a member of the minority organizational caucus, if any, appointed by the speaker of the house with the concurrence by roll call vote of two-thirds of the full membership of the house, and includes the five public members appointed under (3) of this subsection; and

     (3) five public members who are selected by the Chief Justice of the Alaska Supreme Court and who are ratified by two-thirds of the full membership of the senate and two-thirds of the full membership of the house.

 (c) No more than one public member may be a former legislator and no more than two public members of the committee may be members of the same political party.

 (d) The members of each subcommittee shall elect a chair and a vice-chair, who serve a term of two years. Neither a chair nor a vice-chair may be a member of the legislature. An officer may not hold the same office for more than two consecutive terms. The vice-chair shall act as chair in the absence of the chair. The chair selected by the senate subcommittee shall chair the full committee beginning the first day of the regular session in odd-numbered years and the chair selected by the house subcommittee shall chair the full committee beginning the first day of the regular session in even-numbered years.

 (e) Except as provided in this subsection, a vacancy on the committee shall be filled under (b) of this section. An individual who is appointed to fill a vacancy that occurs during the last 10 days of the first regular session of a legislature or during the interim between regular sessions of that legislature serves without concurrence or ratification through the 10th day of the second regular session of the legislature. An individual who is appointed to fill a vacancy that occurs during the last 10 days of the second regular session of a legislature or during the interim after the second regular session serves without concurrence or ratification through the convening of the first regular session of the next legislature.

 (f) The committee may contract for professional services and may employ staff as it considers necessary. A committee employee, including a person who provides personal services under a contract with the committee, may not be a legislator, an elected or appointed official of a state or local governmental entity, an officer of a political party, a candidate for public office, or a registered lobbyist. The legislative council shall provide office space, equipment, and additional staff support for the committee. The committee shall submit a budget for each fiscal year to the finance committees of the legislature and shall annually submit an estimated budget to the governor for information purposes in preparation of the state operating budget. Public members of the committee serve without compensation for their services, but are entitled to per diem and travel expenses authorized for boards and commissions under AS 39.20.180.

 (g) Each legislative member serves for the duration of the legislature during which the member is appointed. Each public member serves for a term that commences on the date the member is ratified and ends on the first day of the third regular session that follows the ratification. A public member whose term has expired continues in office until a successor has been appointed and ratified or until the 30th calendar day of the first legislative session that follows the successor’s appointment, whichever is earlier. A member of the committee may be removed from membership on the committee for failure to carry out the person’s duties as a member of the committee. A legislator may be removed with the concurrence by roll call vote of two-thirds of the full membership of the house of the legislature to which the member belongs. A public member may be removed with the concurrence by roll call vote of two-thirds of the full membership of each house of the legislature.

 (h) A member is disqualified from participating as a member in any proceeding before the committee involving a complaint against the member or an employee whose work is supervised by the member or an advisory opinion requested by the member. If a regular legislative member of the committee is disqualified under this subsection from participating in a proceeding involving a complaint, the member’s alternate shall be designated under AS 24.60.131.

 (i) A quorum of the committee consists of a majority of the members and must include at least two legislative members and three public members. A quorum of a subcommittee established under this section consists of a majority of the members of the subcommittee and must include at least one legislative member and three public members. A vote of a majority of the members appointed to the committee or a subcommittee is required for official action.

 (j) Except to the extent that a provision would prevent the committee from complying with the confidentiality provisions of this chapter, the committee is subject to AS 44.62.310 — 44.62.319 (Open Meetings Act) and to the procurement provisions adopted by the legislative council under AS 36.30.020. In this subsection, “committee” includes a subcommittee.

 (k) A member or an employee or contractor of the committee may obtain access to closed committee files containing information that is made confidential by law only if the committee determines that the person has a need to obtain access to the closed files that relates to the official duties of the committee and the person seeking access.

 (l) The committee or a subcommittee shall meet at the call of the chair or a majority of the members. The committee or a subcommittee may meet by teleconference.

 (m) Except as provided in (b)(1) and (2) of this section, a member may not be a legislator, a legislative employee, an elected or appointed official required to make disclosures under AS 39.50 (public official financial disclosure), an officer of a political party, a candidate for public office, or a registered lobbyist.

 (n) [Repealed, § 18 ch 45 SLA 2012.]
 (o) Notwithstanding (h) of this section and AS 24.60.131, if a complaint before the committee alleges a violation of this chapter by a group of legislators that includes a legislative member of the committee and that member’s alternate, the member and alternate member are disqualified from serving on the committee with regard to the complaint. If the two disqualified members of the committee are members of the majority organizational caucus, the presiding officer of the house in which the two disqualified members serve shall appoint from that house an alternate to serve with regard to the complaint. If one of the two disqualified legislative members of the committee is not a member of the majority organizational caucus, the leader of the minority organizational caucus with the greatest number of members shall appoint from that house an alternate to serve with regard to the complaint. If a complaint alleges a violation of this chapter that includes all legislative members of the majority organizational caucus of one house, the presiding officer of that house shall appoint from the other house an alternate to serve with regard to the complaint. If the complaint alleges a violation of this chapter that includes all legislative members of a minority organizational caucus of one house, the leader of that minority organizational caucus shall appoint from the other house an alternate to serve with regard to the complaint.

 (p) In this section,
     (1) “majority organizational caucus” means a group of legislators who have organized and elected a majority leader and constitute more than 50 percent of the total membership of the house or senate, as appropriate;

     (2) “minority organizational caucus” means a group of legislators who have organized and elected a minority leader and constitute at least 25 percent of the total membership of the house or senate, as appropriate.




Sec. 24.60.131. Alternate members.
 (a) When appointing members of the legislature to serve on the committee under AS 24.60.130(b), the speaker of the house of representatives or the president of the senate, as appropriate, shall appoint an alternate member for each regular member. The alternate member shall have the same qualifications for appointment to the committee as the regular member for whom the alternate stands as alternate. The alternate member’s appointment is subject to confirmation as required for appointment of the regular member.

 (b) When selecting public members to serve on the committee under AS 24.60.130(b), the Chief Justice of the Alaska Supreme Court shall select one alternate public member. The alternate public member’s selection is subject to ratification as required for selection of the regular public members.

 (c) Subject to (d) of this section, if a regular member of the committee or a subcommittee is unable to participate in a proceeding other than a proceeding under AS 24.60.170, the chair of the committee or subcommittee that holds the proceeding shall designate the regular member’s alternate to participate in place of the regular member at the proceeding, and the alternate shall participate for the duration of that proceeding unless the alternate is unable to participate.

 (d) If a regular member of the committee or a subcommittee or an alternate member appointed under (a) or (b) of this section participates at the commencement of a proceeding under AS 24.60.170, the member shall participate for the duration of the proceeding unless the member is disqualified under AS 24.60.130(h) or is unable to continue participating. If the participating member is disqualified under AS 24.60.130(h) or becomes unable to participate, the chair of the committee or subcommittee that holds the proceeding shall designate the member’s alternate to participate in place of the member for the duration of the proceeding unless the alternate is disqualified or is unable to participate.

 (e) If both a regular legislative member and that member’s alternate appointed under (a) of this section are not available to participate at the commencement of a proceeding under AS 24.60.170 because they are disqualified under AS 24.60.130(h), the presiding officer of the house in which the two members serve shall appoint from that house an alternate and designate that alternate to participate in the proceeding; however, if the two members who are not available to participate are not members of the majority organizational caucus, the leader of the minority organizational caucus with the greatest number of members shall appoint from that house an alternate and designate that alternate to participate in the proceeding.

 (f) A designation under (c) — (e) of this section shall be treated as confidential to the same extent that the identity of the subject of a complaint is required to be kept confidential.




Sec. 24.60.134. Prohibited conduct by public members and committee employees and contractors.
 (a) Except as provided in (c) of this section, in addition to complying with the other requirements of this chapter, a public member of the committee, an employee of the committee, or a person under contract to provide personal services to the committee may not, during the person’s term of office or employment or during the life of the contract, participate in
     (1) political management or in a political campaign for a candidate for election to federal, state, or local office, regardless of whether the campaign is partisan or nonpartisan, or for passage or defeat of a ballot measure of any type;

     (2) the campaign of, attend campaign fund-raising events for, or make a financial contribution to
          (A) a candidate for the legislature;

          (B) an incumbent legislator or legislative employee who is a candidate for another public office; or

          (C) a person running for another office against an incumbent legislator or legislative employee;

     (3) a fund-raising event held on behalf of a political party or attend a political party fund-raising event; or

     (4) lobbying activities that would require the person to register as a lobbyist except as required to inform the legislature concerning legislation requested by the committee or other matters related to the committee.

 (b) A violation or alleged violation of this section shall be treated as any other violation of this chapter and shall be dealt with by the committee accordingly. During the pendency of a complaint against a member, committee employee, or committee contractor, the person complained against may not participate in official action of the committee.

 (c) A person under contract to provide personal services to the committee who does so as part of a sole proprietorship, corporation, partnership, or other legal entity that includes individuals who will not be participating directly in the work performed by the entity for the committee may request the committee to exclude members of the entity from some or all of the provisions of this section. The committee may grant the request if it finds that
     (1) doing so will not lead to the appearance that the committee is subject to undue political influence; and

     (2) there is no appearance of impropriety.




Sec. 24.60.140. Authority of the committee and its subcommittees.
 (a) The senate subcommittee has authority over proceedings concerning conduct by a member or former member of the senate or a person employed by a member or a committee of the senate.

 (b) The house subcommittee has authority over proceedings concerning the conduct by a member or former member of the house or a person employed by a member or a committee of the house.

 (c) The full committee has authority
     (1) over proceedings concerning the conduct by an employee of an agency of the legislature;

     (2) to review any matter arising under this chapter that would result in action being required by both houses of the legislature; and

     (3) to issue advisory opinions under AS 24.60.160.




Sec. 24.60.150. Duties of the committee.
 (a) The committee shall
     (1) adopt procedures to facilitate the receipt of inquiries and prompt rendition of its opinions;

     (2) publish annual summaries of decisions and advisory opinions with sufficient deletions in the summaries to prevent disclosing the identity of the persons involved in the decisions or opinions that have remained confidential;

     (3) publish legislative ethics materials, including an annually updated handbook on standards of ethical conduct and a bimonthly legislative newsletter, to help educate legislators, legislative employees, and public members of the committee on the subject of legislative ethics;

     (4) within 10 days of the first day of each regular session of the legislature and at other times determined by the committee, administer two types of legislative ethics courses that teach means of compliance with this chapter and are designed to give an understanding of this chapter’s purpose under AS 24.60.010; one course, for returning legislators, legislative employees, or public members of the committee, must refresh knowledge and review compliance issues; a separate course shall be designed to give first-time legislators, legislative employees, or public members of the committee a fundamental understanding of this chapter and how to comply with it.

 (b) The committee may
     (1) recommend legislation to the legislature the committee considers desirable or necessary to promote and maintain high standards of ethical conduct in government;

     (2) subpoena witnesses, administer oaths, and take testimony relating to matters before the committee, and may require the production for examination of any books or papers relating to any matter under investigation before the committee.




Sec. 24.60.155. Legislative ethics course.
 (a) A person who is a legislator, legislative employee, public member of the committee, legislative intern, or legislative volunteer shall complete a legislative ethics course administered by the committee under AS 24.60.150(a)(4) within 10 days of the first day of the first regular session of each legislature or, if the person first takes office or begins service after the 10th day of that session, within 30 days after the person takes office or begins service. The committee may grant a person additional time to complete the course required by this section.

 (b) A legislative intern or legislative volunteer who serves fewer than 30 days in one legislature is not subject to the requirements under (a) of this section.




Sec. 24.60.158. Advice by staff.
The committee shall authorize and train its staff to give oral advice and provide a written informal nonbinding advice letter to persons seeking guidance as to the spirit or legal requirements of this chapter, provided that the advice is given with the express stipulations that
     (1) the opinions given are not necessarily those of the committee;

     (2) although the advice is given in good faith, the person seeking the advice relies on it at the person’s own risk; and

     (3) the advice is not binding upon the committee.




Sec. 24.60.160. Advisory opinions.
 (a) On the request of the committee, the Alaska Public Offices Commission, a person to whom this chapter applies, or a person who has been newly elected to the legislature, the committee shall issue an advisory opinion within 60 days as to whether the facts and circumstances of a particular case constitute a violation of ethical standards. If it finds that it is advisable to do so, the committee may issue an opinion under this section on the request of a person who reasonably expects to become subject to this chapter within the next 45 days. The 60-day period for issuing an opinion may be extended by the committee if the person requesting the opinion consents.

 (b) An opinion issued under this section is binding on the committee in any subsequent proceedings concerning the facts and circumstances of the particular case unless material facts were omitted or misstated in the request for the advisory opinion. An opinion issued under this section must be issued with sufficient deletions to prevent disclosing the identity of the person or persons involved. Advisory opinion discussions and deliberations are confidential, unless the requester and anyone else named in the request who is covered by this chapter waives confidentiality. The committee’s final vote on the advisory opinion is a public record.




Sec. 24.60.165. Use of information submitted with request for advice.
The committee may not bring a complaint against a person based upon information voluntarily given to the committee by the person in connection with a good faith request for advice under AS 24.60.158 or 24.60.160, and may not use that information against the person in a proceeding under AS 24.60.170. This section does not preclude the committee from acting on a complaint concerning the subject of a person’s request for advice if the complaint is brought by another person, or if the complaint arises out of conduct taking place after the advice is requested, and does not preclude the committee from using information or evidence obtained from an independent source, even if that information or evidence was also submitted with a request for advice.

Sec. 24.60.170. Proceedings before the committee; limitations.
 (a) The committee shall consider a complaint alleging a violation of this chapter if the alleged violation occurred within five years before the date that the complaint is filed with the committee. The committee may not consider a complaint filed against all members of the legislature, against all members of one house of the legislature, or against a person employed by the legislative branch of government after the person has terminated legislative service. However, the committee may reinstitute proceedings concerning a complaint that was closed because a former employee terminated legislative service if the former employee resumes legislative service, whether as an employee or a legislator, within five years after the alleged violation.

 (b) A complaint may be initiated by any person. The complaint must be in writing and signed under oath by the person making the complaint and must contain a statement that the complainant has reason to believe that a violation of this chapter has occurred and describe any facts known to the complainant to support that belief. The committee shall upon request provide a form for a complaint to a person wishing to file a complaint. Upon receiving a complaint, the committee shall advise the complainant that the committee or the subject of the complaint may ask the complainant to testify at any stage of the proceeding as to the complainant’s belief that the subject of the complaint has violated this chapter. The committee shall respond to a complaint concerning the conduct of a candidate for election to state office received during the campaign period in accordance with (o) of this section. The committee shall treat a complaint concerning the conduct of a candidate for election to state office that is pending at the beginning of a campaign period in accordance with (p) of this section. The committee shall immediately provide a copy of the complaint to the person who is the subject of the complaint.

 (c) When the committee receives a complaint under (a) of this section, it may assign the complaint to a staff person. The staff person shall conduct a preliminary examination of the complaint and advise the committee whether the allegations of the complaint, if true, constitute a violation of this chapter and whether there is credible information to indicate that a further investigation and proceeding is warranted. The staff recommendation shall be based on the information and evidence contained in the complaint as supplemented by the complainant and by the subject of the complaint, if requested to do so by the staff member. The committee shall consider the recommendation of the staff member, if any, and shall determine whether the allegations of the complaint, if true, constitute a violation of this chapter. If the committee determines that the allegations, if proven, would not give rise to a violation, that the complaint is frivolous on its face, that there is insufficient credible information that can be uncovered to warrant further investigation by the committee, or that the committee’s lack of jurisdiction is apparent on the face of the complaint, the committee shall dismiss the complaint and shall notify the complainant and the subject of the complaint of the dismissal. The committee may ask the complainant to provide clarification or additional information before it makes a decision under this subsection and may request information concerning the matter from the subject of the complaint. Neither the complainant nor the subject of a complaint is obligated to provide the information. A proceeding conducted under this subsection, documents that are part of a proceeding, and a dismissal under this subsection are confidential as provided in (l) of this section unless the subject of the complaint waives confidentiality as provided in that subsection.

 (d) If the committee determines that some or all of the allegations of a complaint, if proven, would constitute a violation of this chapter, or if the committee has initiated a complaint, the committee shall investigate the complaint, on a confidential basis. Before beginning an investigation of a complaint, the committee shall adopt a resolution defining the scope of the investigation. A copy of this resolution shall be provided to the complainant and to the subject of the complaint. As part of its investigation, the committee shall afford the subject of the complaint an opportunity to explain the conduct alleged to be a violation of this chapter.

 (e) If during the investigation under (d) of this section, the committee discovers facts that justify an expansion of the investigation and the possibility of additional charges beyond those contained in the complaint, the resolution described in (d) of this section shall be amended accordingly and a copy of the amended resolution shall be provided to the subject of the complaint.

 (f) If the committee determines after investigation that there is not probable cause to believe that the subject of the complaint has violated this chapter, the committee shall dismiss the complaint. The committee may also dismiss portions of a complaint if it finds no probable cause to believe that the subject of the complaint has violated this chapter as alleged in those portions. The committee shall issue a decision explaining its dismissal. Committee deliberations and vote on the dismissal order and decision are not open to the public or to the subject of the complaint. A copy of the dismissal order and decision shall be sent to the complainant and to the subject of the complaint. Notwithstanding (l) of this section, a dismissal order and decision is open to inspection and copying by the public.

 (g) If the committee investigation determines that a probable violation of this chapter exists that may be corrected by action of the subject of the complaint and that does not warrant sanctions other than correction, the committee may issue an opinion recommending corrective action. This opinion shall be provided to the complainant and to the subject of the complaint, and is open to inspection by the public. Within 20 days after receiving the opinion, the subject of the complaint may request a confidential meeting with the committee at which meeting the committee shall explain the reasons for its recommendations. The committee may divulge confidential information to the subject of the complaint. The information remains confidential. The subject of the complaint may comply with the opinion or may request a hearing before the committee under (j) of this section. After the hearing, the committee may amend or affirm the opinion. If the subject of the complaint agrees to comply with the opinion but later fails to complete the corrective action in a timely manner, the committee may formally charge the person as provided in (h) of this section or may refer the matter to the appropriate house of the legislature, in the case of a legislator, or, in the case of a legislative employee, to the employee’s appointing authority. The appropriate house of the legislature or the appointing authority, as appropriate, may take action to enforce the corrective action or may decline to take action and refer the matter to the committee. In either case, the committee may formally charge the person under (h) of this section.

 (h) If the subject of a complaint fails to comply with an opinion and the committee decides under (g) of this section to charge the person, or if the committee determines after investigation that there is probable cause to believe that the subject of the complaint has committed a violation of this chapter that may require sanctions instead of or in addition to corrective action, the committee shall formally charge the person. The charge shall be served on the person charged, in a manner consistent with the service of summons under the rules of civil procedure, and a copy of the charge shall be sent to the complainant. The person charged may file a responsive pleading to the committee admitting or denying some or all of the allegations of the charge.

 (i) A person charged under (h) of this section may engage in discovery in a manner consistent with the Alaska Rules of Civil Procedure. The committee may adopt procedures that
     (1) impose reasonable restrictions on the time for this discovery and on the materials that may be discovered;

     (2) permit a person who is the subject of a complaint to engage in discovery at an earlier stage of the proceedings;

     (3) impose reasonable restrictions on the release of information that the subject of a complaint acquires from the committee in the course of discovery, or on information obtained by use of the committee’s authority, in order to protect the privacy of persons not under investigation to whom the information pertains; however, the committee may not impose restrictions on the release of information by the subject of the complaint unless the complainant has agreed to be bound by similar restrictions and has not made public the information contained in the complaint, information about the complaint, or the fact of filing the complaint.

 (j) If the committee has issued a formal charge under (h) of this section, and if the person charged has not admitted the allegations of the charge, the committee shall schedule a hearing on the charge. The committee may appoint an individual to present the case against the person charged if that individual does not provide other legal advice to the committee except in the course of presenting cases under this subsection. The hearing shall be scheduled for a date more than 20 and less than 90 days after service of the charge on the person charged, unless the committee schedules a later hearing date. If the complainant prevents the hearing from starting before the 90-day deadline passes and a quorum of the committee determines by vote of a majority of committee members the delay is not supported by a compelling reason or will result in the person charged being deprived of a fair hearing, the committee may dismiss the complaint with prejudice or enter some other order the committee determines is appropriate. At the hearing, the person charged shall have the right to appear personally before the committee, to subpoena witnesses and require the production of books or papers relating to the proceedings, to be represented by counsel, and to cross-examine witnesses. A witness shall testify under oath. The committee is not bound by the rules of evidence, but the committee’s findings must be based upon clear and convincing evidence. Testimony taken at the hearing shall be recorded, and evidence shall be maintained.

 (k) Following the hearing, the committee shall issue a decision stating whether or not the subject of the complaint violated this chapter, and explaining the reasons for the determination. The committee’s decision may also indicate whether the subject cooperated with the committee in its proceedings. If the committee finds a violation, or lack of cooperation by the subject, the decision shall recommend what sanctions, if any, the committee believes are appropriate. If there has not been a hearing because the person charged admitted to the allegations of the charge, the committee shall issue a decision outlining the facts of the violation and containing a sanctions recommendation.

 (l) Proceedings of the committee relating to complaints before it are confidential until the committee determines that there is probable cause to believe that a violation of this chapter has occurred. Except to the extent that the confidentiality provisions are waived by the subject of the complaint, the person filing a complaint shall keep confidential the fact that the person has filed a complaint under this section as well as the contents of the complaint filed. The complaint and all documents produced or disclosed as a result of the committee investigation are confidential and not subject to inspection by the public. If in the course of an investigation or probable cause determination the committee finds evidence of probable criminal activity, the committee shall transmit a statement and factual findings limited to that activity to the appropriate law enforcement agency. If the committee finds evidence of a probable violation of AS 15.13, the committee shall transmit a statement to that effect and factual findings limited to the probable violation to the Alaska Public Offices Commission. All meetings of the committee before the determination of probable cause are closed to the public and to legislators who are not members of the committee. However, the committee may permit the subject of the complaint to attend a meeting other than the deliberations on probable cause. The confidentiality provisions of this subsection may be waived by the subject of the complaint. Except to the extent that the confidentiality provisions are waived by the subject of the complaint, if the committee finds that a complainant has violated any confidentiality provision, the committee shall immediately dismiss the complaint. Dismissal of a complaint under this subsection does not affect the right of the committee or any person other than the complainant to initiate a complaint based on the same factual allegations.

 (m) All documents issued by the committee after a determination of probable cause to believe that the subject of a complaint has violated this chapter, including an opinion recommending corrective action under (g) of this section and a formal charge under (h) of this section, are subject to public inspection. Hearings of the committee under (j) of this section are open to the public, and documents presented at a hearing, and motions filed in connection with the hearing, are subject to inspection by the public. Deliberations of the committee following a hearing, deliberations on motions filed by the subject of a charge under (h) of this section, and deliberations concerning appropriate sanctions are confidential.

 (n) The committee shall dismiss a complaint against a person employed by the legislative branch of government if the person terminates legislative service. The committee may in its discretion dismiss a complaint against a former member of the legislature whether the complaint was filed before or after the former member departed from the legislature.

 (o) The committee shall return a complaint concerning the conduct of a candidate for state office received during a campaign period to the complainant unless the subject of the complaint permits the committee to assume jurisdiction under this subsection. If the committee receives a complaint concerning the conduct of a candidate during the campaign period, the committee shall immediately notify the subject of the complaint of the receipt of the complaint, of the suspension of the committee’s jurisdiction during the campaign period, and of the candidate’s right to waive the suspension of jurisdiction under this subsection. The candidate may, within 11 days after the committee mails or otherwise sends notice of the complaint to the candidate, notify the committee that the candidate chooses to have the committee proceed with the complaint under this section. If the candidate does not act within that time or if the candidate notifies the committee that the candidate is not waiving the suspension of committee jurisdiction, the committee shall return the complaint to the complainant with notice of the suspension of jurisdiction under this subsection and of the right of the complainant to file the complaint after the end of the campaign period.

 (p) When the committee has a complaint concerning the conduct of a candidate for state office pending before it at the beginning of a campaign period that has not resulted in the issuance of formal charges under (h) of this section, the committee may proceed with its consideration of the complaint only to the extent that the committee’s actions are confidential under this section. The committee may not, during a campaign period, issue a dismissal order or decision under (f) of this section, issue an opinion under (g) of this section, or formally charge a person under (h) of this section. If the committee has formally charged a person under (h) of this section and the charge is still pending when a campaign period begins, the committee shall suspend any public hearings on the matter until after the campaign period ends. The parties to the hearing may continue with discovery during the campaign period. If a hearing has been completed before the beginning of a campaign period but the committee has not yet issued its decision, the committee may not issue the decision until after the end of the campaign period. Notwithstanding the suspension of public proceedings provided for in this subsection, a candidate who is the subject of a complaint may notify the committee in writing that the candidate chooses to have the committee proceed with the complaint under this section.

 (q) A campaign period under this section begins on the later of 45 days before a primary election in which the legislator or legislative employee is a candidate for state office or the day on which the individual files as a candidate for state office and ends at the close of election day for the general or special election in which the individual is a candidate or on the day that the candidate withdraws from the election, if earlier. For a candidate who loses in the primary election, the campaign period ends on the day that results of the primary election showing that another individual won the election are certified.

 (r) At any point in the proceedings when the subject of a complaint appears before the committee, the subject of a complaint may choose to be accompanied by legal counsel or another person who may also present arguments before the committee. The choice of counsel or another person is not subject to review and approval or disapproval by the committee. The choice by the subject of a complaint to be accompanied under this subsection does not constitute a waiver of any confidentiality provision in this chapter.




Sec. 24.60.174. Recommendations to the legislature where violator is a legislator.
 (a) If the person found to have violated this chapter is or was a member of the legislature, the committee’s recommendations shall be forwarded by the chair of the committee to the presiding officer of the appropriate house of the legislature. If the committee recommends sanctions other than expulsion from the legislature, the committee recommendation
     (1) must include a suggested timetable for the compliance reports required under (e) of this section, if any; and

     (2) may include recommended fines that the legislature may impose if the legislator who was found to have violated this chapter does not comply with the sanctions imposed by the legislature in a timely manner.

 (b) If the legislature is in session, the appropriate house shall determine the sanctions, if any, that are to be imposed. The vote shall be taken within 10 legislative days of receipt of the committee’s recommendations.

 (c) If the legislature is not in session, the presiding officer of the appropriate house may request the legislature to consider convening itself into special session under AS 24.05.100(a)(2) to consider the committee’s recommendations. If expulsion is recommended, the presiding officer shall so request. If the legislature does not convene itself into special session, the appropriate house shall consider the recommendations during the first 10 days of the next regular session.

 (d) Except in the case of expulsion, which requires a two-thirds vote, all other sanctions shall be determined by a majority vote of the full house of which the legislator is a member.

 (e) When a house of the legislature imposes a sanction other than expulsion on a member or former member, it shall advise the committee at the time of imposing the sanction of the terms it has imposed and of the timetable for compliance adopted with the sanctions. A legislator or former legislator on whom sanctions other than expulsion have been imposed shall report to the committee as required by the timetable. If the committee determines that the legislator or former legislator has not complied fully and in a timely manner with the sanctions imposed by the legislature, the committee may recommend that the legislature impose a fine or additional sanctions.




Sec. 24.60.176. Recommendations where violator is a legislative employee.
 (a) If the person found to have violated this chapter is or was a legislative employee, the committee’s recommendations shall be forwarded to the appropriate appointing authority which shall, as soon as is reasonably possible, determine the sanctions, if any, to be imposed. The appointing authority may not question the committee’s findings of fact. The appointing authority shall assume the validity of the committee’s findings and determine and impose the appropriate sanctions. The appointing authority has the power to impose a sanction recommended by the committee or to impose a different sanction. The appointing authority shall enforce the sanction and shall report to the committee at a time specified by the committee concerning the employee’s compliance with the sanction.

 (b) In this section, “appointing authority” means
     (1) the legislative council for employees of the Legislative Affairs Agency and of the legislative council and for legislative employees not otherwise covered under this subsection;

     (2) the Legislative Budget and Audit Committee for the legislative fiscal analyst and employees of the division of legislative finance, the legislative auditor and employees of the division of legislative audit, and employees of the Legislative Budget and Audit Committee;

     (3) the appropriate finance committee for employees of the senate or house finance committees;

     (4) the appropriate rules committee for employees of
          (A) standing committees of the legislature, other than the finance committees;

          (B) the senate secretary’s office and the office of the chief clerk of the house of representatives; and

          (C) house records and senate records;

     (5) the legislator who made the hiring decision for employees of individual legislators; however, the legislator may request the appropriate rules committee to act in the legislator’s stead;

     (6) the ombudsman for employees of the office of the ombudsman, other than the ombudsman;

     (7) the legislature for the ombudsman;

     (8) the victims’ advocate for employees of the office of victims’ rights, other than the victims’ advocate;

     (9) the legislature for the victims’ advocate.




Sec. 24.60.178. Sanctions recommended by committee.
 (a) When the committee finds that a person has violated this chapter, the committee may recommend appropriate sanctions, including sanctions set out in (b) of this section.

 (b) The sanctions that the committee may recommend include
     (1) imposition of a civil penalty of not more than $5,000 for each offense or twice the amount improperly gained, whichever is greater;

     (2) divestiture of specified assets or withdrawal from specified associations;

     (3) additional, detailed disclosure, either as a public disclosure or as a confidential disclosure to the committee;

     (4) in the case of a legislative employee, suspension of employment with or without pay for a stated period of time or until stated conditions are met, or termination from legislative employment;

     (5) restitution of property or reimbursement of improperly received benefits;

     (6) public or private written reprimand;

     (7) censure, including, in the case of a legislator, removal from a leadership position or committee membership and a determination that the legislator will not be appointed to serve in a leadership position or on a committee during the remainder of that legislature;

     (8) placing the person on probationary status;

     (9) in the case of a legislator, expulsion from the house of the legislature;

     (10) any other appropriate measure.

 (c) In addition to or in place of a sanction recommended under (b) of this section, the committee may recommend that the subject of a complaint be required to pay all or a portion of the costs related to the investigation and adjudication of a complaint.




Sec. 24.60.180. [Renumbered as AS 24.60.980.]
Sec. 24.60.190. Definitions. [Repealed, § 42 ch 127 SLA 1992.]
Article 4. Required Annual Financial Disclosure.
Sec. 24.60.200. Financial disclosure by legislators, public members of the committee, and legislative directors.
A legislator, a public member of the committee, and a legislative director shall file a disclosure statement, under oath and on penalty of perjury, with the Alaska Public Offices Commission giving the following information about the income received or deferred income, earned or otherwise, to be received by the discloser, the discloser’s spouse or domestic partner, the discloser’s dependent children, and the discloser’s nondependent children who are living with the discloser:
     (1) the information that a public official is required to report under AS 39.50.030, other than information about
          (A) income received as compensation for personal services;

          (B) a loan or loan guarantee;

          (C) gifts;

     (2) as to income or deferred income in excess of $1,000 earned or received as compensation for personal services, and as to dividend income or deferred compensation in excess of $1,000 received from a limited liability company as compensation or deferred compensation for personal services, a statement describing
          (A) the names and addresses of the source and the recipient;

          (B) the amount;

          (C) whether it was or will be earned by commission, by the job, by the hour, or by some other method;

          (D) the dates and approximate number of hours worked or to be worked to earn it; and

          (E) unless required by law to be kept confidential, a description sufficient to make clear to a person of ordinary understanding the nature of each service performed or to be performed and the date the service was performed or will be performed;

     (3) as to each loan or loan guarantee over $1,000 from a source with a substantial interest in legislative, administrative, or political action, the name and address of the person making the loan or guarantee, the amount of the loan, the terms and conditions under which the loan or guarantee was given, the amount outstanding at the time of filing, and whether or not a written loan agreement exists.




Sec. 24.60.210. Deadlines for filing of disclosure statements.
 (a) A person required to file a disclosure statement under AS 24.60.200 shall file an annual report with the Alaska Public Offices Commission, covering the previous calendar year, containing the disclosures required by AS 24.60.200, on or before March 15 of each year, except that a person appointed as a legislator under AS 15.40, a public member of the committee, or a legislative director must file within 30 days after the person’s appointment. In addition, a person subject to this subsection shall, within 90 days after leaving service as a legislator, legislative director, or public member of the committee, file a final report containing the disclosures required of the person by AS 24.60.200 for the period that begins on the last day of the last period for which the person filed a report required by that section and ends on the date of the person’s last day of service.

 (b) Notwithstanding (a) of this section, a public member and a public member nominee of the committee shall file an annual report with the Alaska Public Offices Commission, covering the previous calendar year, containing the disclosures required by AS 24.60.200, on or before the second Monday in January of each year.

 (c) The Alaska Public Offices Commission shall require that the reports required under this section be submitted electronically but may, when circumstances warrant an exception, accept any information required under this section that is typed in clear and legible black typeface or hand-printed in dark ink on paper in a format approved by the commission or on forms provided by the commission and that is filed with the commission.




Sec. 24.60.220. Administration of AS 24.60.200 — 24.60.260.
The Alaska Public Offices Commission shall
     (1) adopt regulations to implement and interpret the provisions of AS 24.60.200 — 24.60.260;

     (2) prepare standardized forms on which the statements required by AS 24.60.200 shall be filed; and

     (3) examine, investigate, and compare all reports and statements required under AS 24.60.200, and report all possible violations of this chapter it discovers to the committee.




Sec. 24.60.230. Statements as public records.
A statement filed with the Alaska Public Offices Commission under AS 24.60.200 is a public record. A person is not required to comply with AS 24.60.200 to the extent that a court of competent jurisdiction of the state determines that legally privileged professional relationships or constitutional privacy considerations would be violated by compliance.

Sec. 24.60.240. Civil penalty for late filing.
A person required to file a disclosure statement under AS 24.60.200 who fails to file a properly completed report under AS 24.60.200 is subject to a civil penalty of not more than $10 a day for each day the delinquency continues as the Alaska Public Offices Commission determines, subject to appeal to the superior court. An affidavit stating facts in mitigation may be submitted to the Alaska Public Offices Commission by the person against whom the civil penalty is assessed. However, the imposition of the penalties prescribed in this section does not excuse the person from filing reports required by AS 24.60.200.

Sec. 24.60.250. Effect of failure to file.
 (a) In addition to the sanctions described in AS 24.60.260, if the Alaska Public Offices Commission finds that a candidate for the legislature who is an incumbent legislator has failed to file a report under AS 24.60.200 by March 15, the commission shall notify the candidate that the report is late. If the candidate fails to file the report within 30 days after it is due,
     (1) the commission shall notify the lieutenant governor;

     (2) the candidate shall forfeit nomination to office and may not be seated in office;

     (3) the lieutenant governor may not certify the person’s nomination for office or election to office; and

     (4) nomination to the office shall be certified as provided in AS 39.50.060(b).

 (b) In addition to the sanctions described in AS 24.60.260, if the Alaska Public Offices Commission finds that a member of the committee has failed or refused to file a report under AS 24.60.200 by a deadline established in AS 24.60.210, it shall notify the presiding officer of the appropriate legislative body. In the case of a public member of the committee, the commission shall notify both presiding officers.

 (c) In addition to the sanctions described in AS 24.60.260, if the Alaska Public Offices Commission finds that a legislative director has failed or refused to file a report under AS 24.60.200 by a deadline established in AS 24.60.210, it shall notify the Alaska Legislative Council or the Legislative Budget and Audit Committee, as appropriate. For the ombudsman and the office of victims’ rights, the Alaska Legislative Council shall be notified.




Sec. 24.60.255. Administrative complaints.
 (a) A person may file a written complaint alleging a violation of AS 24.60.200 — 24.60.260 has occurred or is occurring.

 (b) Complaints filed under (a) of this section must be filed within five years after the date of the alleged violation.

 (c) If a member of the Alaska Public Offices Commission files a complaint, that member of the commission may not participate in any proceeding of the commission relating to the complaint.




Article 5. Miscellaneous and General Provisions.
Sec. 24.60.260. Prohibited conduct relating to disclosures; penalties.
 (a) A person required to make a disclosure under this chapter may not knowingly make a false or deliberately misleading or incomplete disclosure to the committee or to the Alaska Public Offices Commission. A person who files a disclosure after a deadline set by this chapter or by a regulation adopted by the Alaska Public Offices Commission has violated this chapter and may be subject to imposition of a fine as provided in (c) of this section or AS 24.60.240.

 (b) A person who violates this section is subject to a proceeding under AS 24.60.170, in addition to penalties that may be imposed by the Alaska Public Offices Commission under AS 24.60.240 and to the penalty set out in AS 24.60.250.

 (c) The committee may impose a fine on a person who files a disclosure after a deadline set by this chapter. The amount of the fine imposed under this subsection may not exceed $2 for each day to a maximum of $100 for each late filing unless the committee determines that the late filing was inadvertent or wilful. If the committee finds that a late filing was inadvertent, the maximum fine the committee may impose under this subsection is $25. If the committee determines that the late filing was wilful, the amount of the fine imposed under this subsection may be $100 for each day but may not exceed a maximum of $2,500.




Sec. 24.60.970. Actions by the attorney general.
The attorney general may independently bring civil actions relating to violations under this chapter regardless of the outcome or settlement of a charge before the committee. This section does not prohibit the attorney general from bringing an action under another civil or criminal law.

Sec. 24.60.980. Cooperation by state agencies.
Each agency of the executive branch of state government shall, to the extent permitted by state or federal law, cooperate fully with the committee or a subcommittee by providing information and assistance, including disclosure of financial material and other records relating to a potential violation of this chapter.

Sec. 24.60.990. Definitions.
 (a) In this chapter,
     (1) “administrative action” means conduct related to the development, drafting, consideration, enactment, defeat, application, or interpretation of a rule, regulation, policy, or other action in a regulatory proceeding or a proceeding involving a license, permit, franchise, or entitlement for use;

     (2) “anything of value,” “benefit,” or “thing of value” includes all matters, whether tangible or intangible, that could reasonably be considered to be a material advantage, of material worth, use, or service to the person to whom it is conferred; the terms are intended to be interpreted broadly and encompass all matters that the recipient might find sufficiently desirable to do something in exchange for; “anything of value,” “benefit,” or “thing of value” does not include
          (A) an item listed in AS 24.60.080(a)(2)(B) or (c);

          (B) campaign contributions, pledges, political endorsements, support in a political campaign, or a promise of endorsement or support;

          (C) contributions to a cause or organization, including a charity, made in response to a direct solicitation from a legislator or a person acting at the legislator’s direction; or

          (D) grants under AS 37.05.316 to named recipients;

     (3) “committee” means the Select Committee on Legislative Ethics and includes, when appropriate, the senate or house subcommittee;

     (4) “compensation” means remuneration for personal services rendered, including salary, fees, commissions, bonuses, and similar payments, but does not include reimbursement for actual expenses incurred by a person;

     (5) “domestic partner” means a person who is cohabiting with another person in a relationship that is like a marriage but that is not a legal marriage;

     (6) “immediate family” means
          (A) the spouse or domestic partner of the person; or

          (B) a parent, child, including a stepchild and an adopted child, and sibling of a person if the parent, child, or sibling resides with the person, is financially dependent on the person, or shares a substantial financial interest with the person;

     (7) “income” means an asset that a person has received or expects to receive, regardless of whether it is earned or unearned; inheritances and other gifts are not income;

     (8) “knowingly” has the meaning given in AS 11.81.900;

     (9) “legislative action” means conduct relating to the development, drafting, consideration, sponsorship, enactment or defeat, support or opposition to or of a law, amendment, resolution, report, nomination, or other matter affected by legislative action or inaction;

     (10) “legislative director” means the director of the legislative finance division, the legislative auditor, the director of the legislative research agency, the ombudsman, the victims’ advocate, the executive director of the Legislative Affairs Agency, and the directors of the divisions within the Legislative Affairs Agency;

     (11) “legislative employee” means a person, other than a legislator, who is compensated by the legislative branch in return for providing regular or substantial personal services, regardless of the person’s pay level or technical status as full time or part time; “legislative employee” does not include legislative interns, legislative volunteers, legislative consultants, legislative independent contractors, individuals who perform functions that are incidental to legislative functions, and other employees designated by the committee;

     (12) “lobbyist” means a person who is required to register under AS 24.45.041 and is described under AS 24.45.171, but does not include a volunteer lobbyist described in AS 24.45.161(a)(1) or a representational lobbyist as defined under regulations of the Alaska Public Offices Commission;

     (13) “political action” means conduct in which public officials, including legislators or legislative employees, use their official position or political contacts to exercise influence on state and local government employees or entities; it includes but is not limited to endorsing and pledging support or actively supporting a legislative matter, a nominee, or a candidate for public office;

     (14) “registered lobbyist” means a person who is required to register under AS 24.45.041;

     (15) “representation” means action taken on behalf of another, whether for compensation or not, including but not limited to telephone calls and meetings and appearances at proceedings or meetings;

     (16) “state office” includes the office of governor, lieutenant governor, member of the legislature, or similar state office.

 (b) A person has a substantial interest in legislative, administrative, or political action if the person (1) is not a natural person and will be directly and substantially affected financially by a legislative, administrative, or political action; (2) is a natural person and will be directly and substantially affected financially by a legislative, administrative, or political action in a way that is greater than the effect on a substantial class of persons to which the person belongs as a member of a profession, occupation, industry, or region; (3) has or seeks contracts in excess of $10,000 annually for goods or services with the legislature or with an agency of the state; or (4) is a lobbyist. For the purpose of this subsection, the state, the federal government, and an agency, corporation, or other entity of or owned by the state or federal government do not have a substantial interest in legislative, administrative, or political action.




Sec. 24.60.995. Short title.
This chapter may be cited as the Legislative Ethics Act.

Chapter 65. Office of Victims’ Rights.

Sec. 24.65.010. Office of victims’ rights.
There is created in the legislative branch of the state the office of victims’ rights. The victims’ advocate is the director of the office of victims’ rights.

Sec. 24.65.020. Appointment of the victims’ advocate.
 (a) A candidate for appointment as the victims’ advocate shall be nominated by the victims’ advocate selection committee composed of three members of the senate appointed by the president of the senate and three members of the house of representatives appointed by the speaker of the house. One member of a minority party caucus in each house shall be appointed to the selection committee.

 (b) The victims’ advocate selection committee shall examine persons to serve as victims’ advocate regarding their qualifications and ability and shall place the name of the person selected in nomination. The appointment is effective if the nomination is approved by a roll call vote of two-thirds of the members of the legislature in joint session. The vote on the appointment shall be entered in the journals of both houses.




Sec. 24.65.030. Qualifications.
A person may not serve as victims’ advocate
     (1) unless the person has been a resident of the state for the three years immediately preceding the person’s appointment;

     (2) unless the person has been engaged in the active practice of law for the three years immediately preceding the person’s appointment;

     (3) unless the person has significant experience in criminal law;

     (4) unless the person is an attorney licensed to practice law in this state;

     (5) within one year of the last day on which the person served as a member of the legislature;

     (6) while the person is a candidate for or holds another national, state, or municipal office; the victims’ advocate may not become a candidate for national, state, or municipal office until one year has elapsed from the date the victims’ advocate vacates the office of victims’ advocate;

     (7) while the person is engaged in another occupation for which the person receives compensation;

     (8) unless the person is at least 21 years of age and is a qualified voter.




Sec. 24.65.040. Term of office.
 (a) The term of office of the victims’ advocate is five years. A victims’ advocate may be reappointed but may not serve for more than three terms. To be eligible for reappointment at the conclusion of each five-year term of service, a victims’ advocate seeking reappointment must submit to the victims’ advocate selection committee an application for reappointment.

 (b) If the term of a victims’ advocate expires without the appointment of a successor under this chapter or the victims’ advocate dies, resigns, becomes ineligible to serve, or is removed or suspended from office, the person appointed as acting victims’ advocate under AS 24.65.070(a) serves until a new victims’ advocate is appointed for a full term.




Sec. 24.65.050. Removal.
The legislature, by a concurrent resolution adopted by a roll call vote of two-thirds of the members of each house entered in the journal, may remove or suspend the victims’ advocate from office, but only for neglect of duty, misconduct, or disability.

Sec. 24.65.060. Compensation.
The victims’ advocate is entitled to receive an annual salary of Range 26 on the salary schedule set out in AS 39.27.011(a) for Juneau.

Sec. 24.65.070. Staff and delegation.
 (a) The victims’ advocate shall appoint a person to serve as acting victims’ advocate in the absence of the victims’ advocate. The victims’ advocate shall also appoint assistants and clerical personnel necessary to carry out the provisions of this chapter. Subject to AS 36.30.020, the victims’ advocate may enter into personal services and other contracts the victims’ advocate finds necessary to carry out the provisions of this chapter. The victims’ advocate shall, to the maximum extent practicable, conduct the duties and work of the office by entering into personal services and other contracts the victims’ advocate finds necessary to carry out the provisions of this chapter.

 (b) The victims’ advocate may delegate to the assistants any of the victims’ advocate’s duties except those specified in AS 24.65.150 and 24.65.160; however, during the victims’ advocate’s absence from the principal business offices, the victims’ advocate may delegate the duties specified in AS 24.65.150 and 24.65.160 to the acting victims’ advocate for the duration of the absence. The duties specified in AS 24.65.150 and 24.65.160 shall be performed by the acting victims’ advocate when serving under AS 24.65.040(b).

 (c) The victims’ advocate and the staff appointed by the victims’ advocate are in the exempt service under AS 39.25.110 and are not subject to the employment policies under AS 24.10 or AS 24.20.




Sec. 24.65.080. Office facilities and administration.
 (a) Subject to restrictions and limitations imposed by the executive director of the Legislative Affairs Agency, the administrative facilities and services of the Legislative Affairs Agency, including computer, data processing, and teleconference facilities, may be made available to the victims’ advocate to be used in the management of the office of victims’ rights and to carry out the purposes of this chapter.

 (b) The salary and benefits of the victims’ advocate and the permanent staff of the victims’ advocate shall be paid through the same procedures used for payment of the salaries and benefits of other permanent legislative employees.

 (c) The victims’ advocate shall submit a budget for each fiscal year to the Alaska Legislative Council, and the council shall annually submit an estimated budget to the governor for information purposes in the preparation of the executive budget. After reviewing and approving, with or without modifications, the budget submitted by the victims’ advocate, the council shall submit the approved budget to the finance committees of the legislature.




Sec. 24.65.090. Procedure.
 (a) The victims’ advocate shall, by regulations adopted under AS 44.62 (Administrative Procedure Act), establish procedures for advocacy on behalf of crime victims, receiving and processing complaints, conducting investigations, reporting findings, and ensuring that confidential information obtained by the victims’ advocate in the course of advocacy on behalf of a crime victim or in the course of an investigation will not be improperly disclosed. The victims’ advocate may establish procedures so that advocacy and investigations on behalf of crime victims in felony cases take a priority over advocacy and investigations on behalf of crime victims in misdemeanor cases.

 (b) The office of victims’ rights may not charge fees for the submission or investigation of complaints.




Sec. 24.65.100. Jurisdiction; duties.
 (a) The victims’ advocate has jurisdiction to advocate on behalf of crime victims of felony offenses or class A misdemeanors, if the class A misdemeanor is a crime involving domestic violence or a crime against a person under AS 11.41, in the courts of the state and to investigate the complaints of crime victims of felony offenses or class A misdemeanors, if the class A misdemeanor is a crime involving domestic violence or a crime against a person under AS 11.41, that they have been denied their rights under the constitution and the laws of the state. In this subsection, “crime involving domestic violence” has the meaning given in AS 18.66.990.

 (b) The victims’ advocate shall exercise reasonable care to
     (1) ensure that the victims’ advocate’s exercise of jurisdiction granted under this section does not interfere with an ongoing criminal investigation or with a criminal prosecution;

     (2) prevent employees of the office of victims’ rights from making extrajudicial statements that the victims’ advocate is prohibited from making under the Alaska Rules of Professional Conduct.

 (c) The victims’ advocate may not advise, counsel, or advocate on behalf of a victim in a way that would
     (1) prevent or discourage a victim from cooperating in a criminal investigation;

     (2) encourage a victim to withhold evidence in a criminal investigation; or

     (3) prevent or discourage a victim from testifying in a criminal proceeding.

 (d) The victims’ advocate shall provide written material to be given out to victims of crime as required by AS 12.61.010. The written material must contain a brief statement about the Violent Crimes Compensation Board and contact information for that board.




Sec. 24.65.105. Payment of restitution.
 (a) Subject to appropriation, the office of victims’ rights is authorized to pay outstanding balances on orders of restitution under AS 12.55.045 or AS 47.12.120. The office of victims’ rights shall coordinate and make payments from the restorative justice account (AS 43.23.048) in accordance with the priority in (b) of this section. A crime victim may receive not more than $10,000 from the restorative justice account, regardless of the amount of the order of restitution.

 (b) The office of victims’ rights shall make restitution payments to eligible victims in the following priority order:
     (1) a natural person;

     (2) private businesses;

     (3) state and local governments.

 (c) The office of victims’ rights shall adopt regulations under AS 44.62 (Administrative Procedure Act) to establish a process for payments of restitution balances from the restorative justice account established in AS 43.23.048.




Sec. 24.65.110. Advocacy on behalf of crime victims; records.
 (a) The victims’ advocate shall assist crime victims in obtaining the rights crime victims are guaranteed under the constitution and laws of the state with regard to the contacts crime victims have with justice agencies.

 (b) The victims’ advocate may make the statement a crime victim is authorized to make under art. I, sec. 24, Constitution of the State of Alaska, and AS 12.55.023, in a court of the state when requested by the crime victim and when the crime victim does not personally make a statement.

 (c) When advocating on behalf of a crime victim in an ongoing criminal case or juvenile adjudication, the victims’ advocate is entitled to all information available to the defendant or juvenile.

 (d) Records obtained by the victims’ advocate shall remain in the exclusive custody of the victims’ advocate. The victims’ advocate may not disclose confidential information to any person.




Sec. 24.65.115. Authority to request return of property on behalf of certain persons.
 (a) Notwithstanding another provision of this chapter, the victims’ advocate may
     (1) file a request under AS 12.36.070 with a law enforcement agency for the return of property to a crime victim after having conducted an investigation and determining that the crime victim is entitled to the return of the property under the factors listed in AS 12.36.070(c);

     (2) request a hearing under AS 12.36.070(f).

 (b) In fulfilling the requirements of this section, the victims’ advocate may use any of the powers granted to the advocate under this chapter.




Sec. 24.65.120. Investigations.
 (a) The victims’ advocate may investigate complaints from crime victims that they have been denied the rights they are guaranteed under the constitution and laws of this state.

 (b) In an investigation, the victims’ advocate may
     (1) make inquiries and obtain information considered necessary;

     (2) hold private hearings; and

     (3) notwithstanding other provisions of law, have access at all times to records of justice agencies, including court records of criminal prosecutions and juvenile adjudications, necessary to ensure that the rights of crime victims are not being denied; with regard to court and prosecution records, the victims’ advocate is entitled to obtain access to every record that the defendant is entitled to access or receive.

 (c) The victims’ advocate shall maintain confidentiality with respect to all matters and the identities of the complainants or witnesses coming before the victims’ advocate except insofar as disclosures may be necessary to enable the victims’ advocate to carry out duties and to support recommendations. However, the victims’ advocate may not disclose a confidential record obtained from a court or justice agency.

 (a) Subject to the privileges recognized by court rule and statute of this state, the victims’ advocate may compel by subpoena, at a specified time and place, the
     (1) appearance and sworn testimony of a person who the victims’ advocate reasonably believes may be able to give information relating to a matter under investigation under AS 24.65.120; and

     (2) production by a person of a record or object that the victims’ advocate reasonably believes may relate to the matter under investigation under AS 24.65.120.

 (b) If a person refuses to comply with a subpoena issued under (a) of this section, the superior court may, on application of the victims’ advocate, compel obedience by proceedings for contempt in the same manner as in the case of disobedience to the requirements of a subpoena issued by the court or refusal to testify in the court.

 (c) This section does not authorize the victims’ advocate to issue a subpoena to
     (1) a justice, judge, magistrate, or a law clerk acting under the direction of a justice, judge, or magistrate, concerning a judicial action or nonaction taken by, or under the direction of, the justice, judge, or magistrate;

     (2) a person acting under the direction of a justice, judge, or magistrate, other than a law clerk, concerning a judicial action or nonaction taken by, or under the direction of, a justice, judge, or magistrate except to establish the occurrence or nonoccurrence of the action or nonaction or the person’s own actions or nonactions; this paragraph does not authorize the victims’ advocate to inquire into the decision-making or thought process of the justice, judge, or magistrate;

     (3) a member of a jury concerning a matter that was considered by the jury;

     (4) the person accused or convicted of committing the crime that is the basis for the complaint, and investigation under AS 24.65.120, concerning a denial of rights or an attorney retained by the person or appointed by a court to represent the person;

     (5) a victim counselor concerning a matter made confidential by AS 18.66.200 — 18.66.250; or

     (6) a justice agency concerning records that lead to the disclosure of a confidential police informant.


Sec. 24.65.140. Consultation.
Before giving an opinion or recommendation that is critical of a justice agency or person as a result of an investigation under AS 24.65.120, the victims’ advocate shall consult with that agency or person. The victims’ advocate may make a preliminary opinion or recommendation available to the agency or person for review, but the preliminary opinion or recommendation is confidential and may not be disclosed to the public by the agency or person.

Sec. 24.65.150. Procedure after investigation.
 (a) The victims’ advocate shall report the advocate’s opinion and recommendations to a justice agency if the victims’ advocate finds, after investigation under AS 24.65.120, that the agency has denied a crime victim rights the crime victim is guaranteed under the constitution and laws of this state.

 (b) The victims’ advocate may request the justice agency to notify the victims’ advocate, within a specified time, of any action taken on the recommendations.

 (c) The report provided under (a) of this section is confidential and may not be disclosed to the public by the justice agency. The victims’ advocate may disclose the report under AS 24.65.160 only after providing notice that the investigation has been concluded to the agency and after receiving the written approval of the complainant to release the report.




Sec. 24.65.160. Publication of recommendations.
Except as provided in AS 24.65.150(c), within a reasonable amount of time after the victims’ advocate reports the advocate’s opinion and recommendations to a justice agency, the victims’ advocate may present the opinion and recommendations to the governor, the legislature, a grand jury, the public, or any of these. The victims’ advocate shall include with the opinion any reply made by the agency.

Sec. 24.65.170. Annual report.
The victims’ advocate shall make available to the public an annual report of the victims’ advocate’s activities under this chapter and notify the legislature that the report is available. The victim’s advocate may include in the report a summary of the advocate’s participation as an ex officio member of domestic violence fatality review teams established under AS 18.66.400.

Sec. 24.65.180. Judicial review.
A proceeding or decision of the victims’ advocate may be reviewed in superior court only to determine if it is contrary to the provisions of this chapter.

Sec. 24.65.190. Immunity of the victims’ advocate.
A civil action may not be brought against the victims’ advocate or a member of the victims’ advocate’s staff for anything done, said, or omitted in performing the victims’ advocate’s duties or responsibilities under this chapter.

Sec. 24.65.200. Victims’ advocate’s privilege not to testify or produce documents or other evidence.
Except as may be necessary to enforce the provisions of this chapter, the determinations, conclusions, thought processes, discussions, records, reports, and recommendations of or information collected by the victims’ advocate or staff of the victims’ advocate are not admissible in a civil or criminal proceeding, and are not subject to questioning or disclosure by subpoena or discovery.

Sec. 24.65.210. Penalty.
A person who knowingly hinders the lawful actions of the victims’ advocate or the staff of the victims’ advocate, or who knowingly refuses to comply with their lawful demands, is guilty of a misdemeanor and upon conviction may be punished by a fine of not more than $1,000. In this section, “knowingly” has the meaning given in AS 11.81.900.

Sec. 24.65.250. Definitions.
In this chapter,
     (1) “justice agency” means a department, office, institution, corporation, authority, organization, commission, committee, council, court, or board of a municipality or in the executive or judicial branches of the state government that is, in any manner, involved with or responsible for the apprehension, prosecution, incarceration, or supervision of criminal or juvenile offenders; it also includes an officer, employee, or member of an agency acting or purporting to act in the exercise of official duties;

     (2) “victim” has the meaning given in AS 12.55.185.

Title 25. Marital and Domestic Relations.

Chapter 05. Alaska Marriage Code.

Article 1. Requirements for Marriage.
Sec. 25.05.010. Marriage a civil contract. [Repealed, § 2 ch 58 SLA 1963.]
Sec. 25.05.011. Civil contract.
 (a) Marriage is a civil contract entered into by one man and one woman that requires both a license and solemnization. The man and the woman must each be at least one of the following:
     (1) 18 years of age or older and otherwise capable;

     (2) qualified for a license under AS 25.05.171; or

     (3) a member of the armed forces of the United States while on active duty.

 (b) A person may not be joined in marriage in this state until a license has been obtained for that purpose as provided in this chapter. A marriage performed in this state is not valid without solemnization as provided in this chapter.




Sec. 25.05.013. Same-sex marriages.
 (a) A marriage entered into by persons of the same sex, either under common law or under statute, that is recognized by another state or foreign jurisdiction is void in this state, and contractual rights granted by virtue of the marriage, including its termination, are unenforceable in this state.

 (b) A same-sex relationship may not be recognized by the state as being entitled to the benefits of marriage.




Sec. 25.05.020. Prohibited marriages. [Repealed, § 2 ch 58 SLA 1963.]
Sec. 25.05.021. Prohibited marriages.
Marriage is prohibited and void if performed when
     (1) either party to the proposed marriage has a husband or wife living; or

     (2) the parties to the proposed marriage are more closely related to each other than the fourth degree of consanguinity, whether of the whole or half blood, computed according to rules of the civil law.




Sec. 25.05.030. Voidable marriages. [Repealed, § 2 ch 58 SLA 1963.]
Sec. 25.05.031. Voidable marriages.
If either party to a marriage is incapable of consenting to it at the time of the marriage for want of marriageable age of consent or sufficient understanding, or if the consent of either party is obtained by force or fraud, or if either party fails to consummate the marriage, the marriage is voidable but only at the suit of the party under the disability or upon whom the force or fraud is imposed.

Sec. 25.05.040. Matters insufficient to render marriages void. [Repealed, § 2 ch 58 SLA 1963.]
Sec. 25.05.041. Matters insufficient to render marriage voidable.
 (a) If a marriage is in other respects lawful and is consummated with the full belief on the part of the persons married, or either of them, that they have been lawfully joined in marriage, then the marriage is not voidable for any of the following reasons:
     (1) the licensing officer did not have jurisdiction to issue the license;

     (2) there was an omission, informality, or irregularity of form in the application for the license or in the license itself;

     (3) either or both witnesses to the marriage were incompetent;

     (4) the marriage was solemnized after the expiration date of the license;

     (5) there were no witnesses to the marriage if the valid license was issued and if the solemnization of the marriage can be otherwise proven.

 (b) If a license has been issued and the marriage solemnized as provided in this chapter and the parties to it have immediately thereafter assumed the habit and repute of husband and wife and have continued to cohabit as husband and wife for one year or until the death of either of them, the marriage shall not be void or voidable solely on the ground the license cannot be produced.




Sec. 25.05.050. Effect of existing former marriage. [Repealed, § 2 ch 58 SLA 1963.]
Sec. 25.05.051. Effect of existing former marriage.
If, during the lifetime of a husband or wife with whom a marriage is still in force, a person remarries and the parties to the subsequent marriage live together as husband and wife, and one of the parties to the subsequent marriage believes in good faith that the former husband or wife is dead or that the former marriage has been annulled or dissolved by a divorce or is without knowledge of the former marriage, then after the death or divorce of the other party to the former marriage, if they continue to live together as husband and wife in good faith on the part of one of them, they are legally married from the time of removal of the impediment, and the issue of the subsequent marriage are the legitimate issue of both parents, whether born before or after the removal of the impediment.

Sec. 25.05.060. Physician’s certificate. [Repealed, § 2 ch 58 SLA 1963.]
Sec. 25.05.061. Marriage without license.
A marriage contracted after January 1, 1964, is void unless a license has first been obtained as provided in this chapter. If the parties to a marriage void for failure to obtain a license validate the marriage by complying with the requirements of this chapter, the issue of the void marriage are legitimate.

Sec. 25.05.070. Certificate to be accompanied by laboratory report. [Repealed, § 2 ch 58 SLA 1963.]
Article 2. Licensing Officers.
Sec. 25.05.071. Persons to issue license.
A licensing officer is the only official who may issue marriage licenses under this chapter.

Sec. 25.05.080. Department to furnish forms. [Repealed, § 2 ch 58 SLA 1963.]
Sec. 25.05.081. Marriage commissioners.
The presiding judge in each judicial district may, if the public interest requires, appoint one or more suitable persons as marriage commissioners. The presiding judge shall describe the marriage commissioner’s area of jurisdiction in the order of appointment. A marriage commissioner may, within that jurisdiction, solemnize marriages in the same manner as a district judge or magistrate and may exercise any power, other than the power to issue marriage licenses, necessarily incident to the duties of a marriage commissioner. The clerk of court shall issue to the marriage commissioner a certified copy of the order of appointment and send a copy of it to the bureau.

Sec. 25.05.090. Department to approve tests, laboratories. [Repealed, § 2 ch 58 SLA 1963.]
Article 3. Procedure to Obtain a License.
Sec. 25.05.091. Application for license; disclosure for child support purposes.
 (a) One of the contracting parties to a prospective marriage shall, at least three days before the time of issuance, file with the licensing officer written, verbal, or telegraphic application for a license. Before issuance of the license, each contracting party shall make a statement under oath that the contemplated marriage meets the requirements of law, giving the names, relationship if any, residence, occupation, and age of each party; naming guardians of any party under the legal age for marriage; and describing any prior marriage of either party, and the manner of dissolution of it. This statement may be made and executed before a notary public or postmaster who shall certify it to the licensing officer.

 (b) In addition to the requirements of (a) of this section, each contracting party to the prospective marriage shall provide to the licensing officer the party’s social security number, if any. Upon request, the licensing officer shall provide a social security number provided under this subsection to the child support services agency created in AS 25.27.010, or the child support enforcement agency of another state, for child support purposes authorized under law.




Sec. 25.05.100. Use of laboratory reports. [Repealed, § 2 ch 58 SLA 1963.]
Secs. 25.05.101 , 25.05.105. Premarital certificate; prescribed tests. [Repealed, § 4 ch 134 SLA 1984.]
Sec. 25.05.110. Penalty for violation. [Repealed, § 2 ch 58 SLA 1963.]
Sec. 25.05.111. Issuance of license.
 (a) A marriage license may not be issued unless both of the contracting parties are identified to the satisfaction of the licensing officer. If all requirements have been met, and there is no legal objection to the contemplated marriage, and neither party is under the influence of intoxicating liquor or otherwise incapable of understanding the seriousness of the proceeding, the licensing officer shall issue a license.

 (b) With a license issued under (a) of this section, the licensing officer shall also give to the parties written information about fetal alcohol effects and the fetal health effects of chemical abuse and battering during pregnancy. The Department of Health and Social Services shall prepare or obtain this information and submit it in distributable form to each licensing officer in the state.




Sec. 25.05.120. Premarital certificate noted on license. [Repealed, § 2 ch 58 SLA 1963.]
Sec. 25.05.121. Marriage license.
The marriage license issued by a licensing officer in this state authorizes the marriage ceremony to be performed anywhere in the state. The license shall be directed “to any person authorized by the laws of this state to solemnize marriage,” and shall authorize that person to solemnize marriage between the parties identified by the license within three months of the date of the license. If either party is not of legal age for marriage, that party’s age and the fact of the consent of the parents or guardian of the underaged party shall be stated. If either party has previously been married, the number of previous marriages shall be stated. The registrar may require other matter necessary to identify the parties to be included in the license. The issuance of a license does not remove or dispense with any legal disability, impediment, or prohibition rendering marriage between the parties illegal, and a statement to that effect shall be included in the license.

Sec. 25.05.130. Waiver of examination and laboratory test. [Repealed, § 2 ch 58 SLA 1963.]
Sec. 25.05.131. Laboratory reports of infectious or heritable diseases. [Repealed, § 4 ch 134 SLA 1984.]
Sec. 25.05.140. Failure to comply is misdemeanor. [Repealed, § 2 ch 58 SLA 1963.]
Sec. 25.05.141. Laboratory results confidential. [Repealed, § 4 ch 134 SLA 1984.]
Sec. 25.05.150. License required. [Repealed, § 2 ch 58 SLA 1963.]
Sec. 25.05.151. Tests and laboratories. [Repealed, § 4 ch 134 SLA 1984.]
Sec. 25.05.160. License to parties under age of consent. [Repealed, § 2 ch 58 SLA 1963.]
Sec. 25.05.161. Waiver of waiting period.
If a three-day waiting period would result in undue hardship or delay in an individual case, the licensing officer may waive the three-day requirement.

Sec. 25.05.170. Penalty for unlawful issuance. [Repealed, § 2 ch 58 SLA 1963.]
Sec. 25.05.171. Persons capable of consenting to marriage: Minimum ages, and consent of parents or guardian.
 (a) A person who has reached the age of 16 but is under the age of 18 shall be issued a marriage license if the written consent of the parents, the parent having actual care, custody, and control, or a guardian of the underaged person is filed with the licensing officer issuing the marriage license under AS 25.05.111.

 (b) A superior court judge may grant permission for a person who has reached the age of 14 but is under the age of 18 to marry and may order the licensing officer to issue the license if the judge finds, following a hearing at which the parents and minor are given the opportunity to appear and be heard, that the marriage is in the best interest of the minor and that either
     (1) the parents have given their consent; or

     (2) the parents are
          (A) arbitrarily and capriciously withholding consent;

          (B) absent or otherwise unaccountable;

          (C) in disagreement among themselves on the question; or

          (D) unfit to decide the matter.




Sec. 25.05.180. Blank forms to be prescribed and furnished. [Repealed, § 2 ch 58 SLA 1963.]
Sec. 25.05.181. Waiver order. [Repealed, § 4 ch 134 SLA 1984.]
Sec. 25.05.190. Contents of license and effect of issuance. [Repealed, § 2 ch 58 SLA 1963.]
Article 4. Forms, Records, and Reports.
Sec. 25.05.191. Marriage license application.
A licensing officer shall make available an application for a marriage license for completion by the parties who wish to be married. The officer shall keep the completed applications, a record of licenses issued, and all other information that the officer is required by law to obtain. These records shall be kept in the office of the licensing officer and shall be open for public inspection or examination during normal office hours.

Sec. 25.05.200. Marriage in violation of statute. [Repealed, § 2 ch 58 SLA 1963.]
Sec. 25.05.201. Notes on docket. [Repealed, § 4 ch 134 SLA 1984.]
Sec. 25.05.210. Solemnization by de facto minister or judicial officer or according to established ritual valid. [Repealed, § 2 ch 58 SLA 1963.]
Sec. 25.05.211. Reports by marriage commissioner. [Repealed, § 13 ch 79 SLA 1997.]
Sec. 25.05.220. Who may solemnize. [Repealed, § 2 ch 58 SLA 1963.]
Sec. 25.05.221. Forms.
 (a) Forms for application, statements, consent of parents, affidavits, licenses, and other forms necessary to comply with this chapter shall be prescribed by the registrar and provided at the expense of the state. The registrar shall furnish all necessary forms to each licensing officer.

 (b) The registrar shall supervise the record work and required reporting of the licensing officers.




Sec. 25.05.230. Form or manner of solemnization. [Repealed, § 2 ch 58 SLA 1963.]
Sec. 25.05.231. Reports of licenses issued.
The registrar may require reports of licenses issued upon forms to be furnished by the registrar.

Sec. 25.05.240. Parties to receive copy of certificate. [Repealed, § 2 ch 58 SLA 1963.]
Sec. 25.05.241. Fees.
The registrar shall establish marriage license fees and provide for accounting for and disposing of the fees.

Sec. 25.05.250. Unlawful solemnization of marriage. [Repealed, § 2 ch 58 SLA 1963.]
Sec. 25.05.251. Relationship to Vital Statistics Act.
Nothing in this chapter repeals or abrogates any part of AS 18.50 (Vital Statistics Act). The records and requirements leading up to and including the issuance of the marriage license are included in the definition of “vital statistics” under AS 18.50. The registrar shall supply the necessary forms and instructions for the licensing officers.

Sec. 25.05.260. Solemnization by unauthorized person. [Repealed, § 2 ch 58 SLA 1963.]
Article 5. Solemnization.
Sec. 25.05.261. Who may solemnize.
 (a) Marriages may be solemnized
     (1) by a minister, priest, or rabbi of any church or congregation in the state, or by a commissioned officer of the Salvation Army, or by the principal officer or elder of recognized churches or congregations that traditionally do not have regular ministers, priests, or rabbis, anywhere within the state;

     (2) by a marriage commissioner or judicial officer of the state anywhere within the jurisdiction of the commissioner or officer;

     (3) before or in any religious organization or congregation according to the established ritual or form commonly practiced in the organization or congregation; or

     (4) by an individual holding an elective public office in the state.

 (b) This section may not be construed to waive the requirements for obtaining a marriage license.

 (c) Nothing in this section creates or implies a duty or obligation on a person authorized to solemnize a marriage under (a)(1), (3), or (4) of this section to solemnize any marriage.




Sec. 25.05.270. Failure of licensing officer to keep records or permit inspection. [Repealed, § 2 ch 58 SLA 1963.]
Sec. 25.05.271. Duty of officiating person before ceremony.
The officiating person shall determine that the parties presenting themselves to be married are the parties named in the license. If the officiating person knows of a legal impediment to the marriage, the officiating person may not perform the ceremony.

Sec. 25.05.280. Action to recover fine or forfeiture. [Repealed, § 2 ch 58 SLA 1963.]
Sec. 25.05.281. Marriage solemnized by unauthorized person.
After a license has been obtained, a marriage solemnized before a person professing to be a person authorized to solemnize marriages in the state under AS 25.05.261(a) is valid regardless of a lack of power or authority in the person, if the marriage is consummated with a belief on the part of the persons so married, or either of them, that they have been lawfully joined in marriage.

Sec. 25.05.291. Civil and religious ceremonies.
When a religious ceremony between two parties follows a civil ceremony between them, one license is sufficient for both ceremonies.

Sec. 25.05.301. Form of solemnization.
In the solemnization of marriage no particular form is required except that the parties shall assent or declare in the presence of each other and the person solemnizing the marriage and in the presence of at least two competent witnesses that they take each other to be husband and wife. A competent witness for this purpose is a person of sound mind capable of understanding the seriousness of the ceremony. At the time of the ceremony, the person solemnizing the marriage shall complete the certification on the original marriage certificate. The person solemnizing the marriage and the two attending witnesses shall sign the original marriage certificate and the necessary copies.

Sec. 25.05.311. Marriage without solemnization.
A marriage contracted after January 1, 1964, is void unless the marriage has been solemnized as provided in this chapter. If the parties to a marriage void for failure to solemnize the marriage validate the marriage by complying with the requirements of this chapter, the issue of the void marriage are legitimate.

Article 6. Penalties.
Sec. 25.05.321. Certificates.
The person solemnizing the marriage shall, on the forms provided by the bureau, complete two short-form certificates, and, after that person and the two witnesses have signed them, give one to each of the parties to the marriage. A church or congregation may design and furnish its own form for this purpose, containing as a minimum the items contained in the form furnished by the bureau. The original marriage certificate shall be filed as required by AS 18.50 (Vital Statistics Act) and regulations adopted under it. The person solemnizing the marriage shall complete the certificate as required and submit it to the local registrar within seven days of the date the marriage is solemnized.

Sec. 25.05.331. Unlawful issuance or refusal of license.
A licensing officer who knowingly issues a marriage license knowing it to be in violation of the provisions of this chapter or who wilfully and wrongfully refuses to issue a license is guilty of a misdemeanor, and upon conviction is punishable by imprisonment for not more than six months, or by a fine of not more than $500, or by both.

Sec. 25.05.341. Misrepresentation.
A person who misrepresents a fact required to be stated on the application for a license or a form related to it, or a licensing officer who issues a marriage license having reason to believe that any material fact has been misrepresented, is guilty of a misdemeanor, and upon conviction is punishable by a fine of not more than $500.

Sec. 25.05.351. Violation concerning marriage license application.
A licensing officer who refuses or neglects to keep a complete record of each application and of each marriage license issued, or who fails to keep marriage license applications open for inspection or examination by the public during office hours is guilty of a misdemeanor and upon conviction is punishable by a fine of not more than $50. Each failure, neglect, or refusal constitutes a separate offense.

Sec. 25.05.361. Unlawful solemnization of marriage.
A person who solemnizes a marriage without first receiving a proper marriage license from the parties as provided in this chapter or without the parties declaring to take each other as husband and wife, or without requiring the presence of two competent witnesses; or who solemnizes a marriage involving a person under the legal age of marriage without the consent of (1) the licensing official when authorized, or (2) the parents or guardian of the underaged person, being stated in the license; or who solemnizes a marriage knowing of any legal impediment thereto, or who solemnizes a marriage after the expiration of the license, or who falsely certifies to the date of a marriage solemnized by that person is guilty of a misdemeanor, and upon conviction is punishable by imprisonment for not more than six months, or by a fine of not more than $500, or by both.

Article 7. General Provisions.
Sec. 25.05.371. Solemnization of marriage by unauthorized person.
A person not authorized by this chapter who wilfully or knowingly undertakes to solemnize a marriage in this state is guilty of a misdemeanor, and upon conviction is punishable by imprisonment for not more than one year, or by a fine of not more than $1,000, or by both.

Sec. 25.05.381. Definitions.
In this chapter,
     (1) “bureau” means the Bureau of Vital Statistics;

     (2) “department” means the Department of Health and Social Services;

     (3) “licensing officer” means the registrar or a local registrar;

     (4) “local registrar” means a person appointed by the state registrar under AS 18.50.080;

     (5) “registrar” means the state registrar of vital statistics.




Sec. 25.05.391. Short title.
This chapter may be cited as the Alaska Marriage Code.

Chapter 10. Marriage Commissioners.

[Repealed, § 2 ch 58 SLA 1963. For current law see AS 25.05.081]

Chapter 15. Husband and Wife.

Sec. 25.15.010. Property of one spouse not subject to contracts or liabilities of other.
When property is owned by one spouse, the other has no interest that makes the property liable for the contracts or liabilities of the spouse who is not the owner of the property, except as provided in this chapter and AS 34.77.

Sec. 25.15.020. Actions between spouses respecting property.
Subject to AS 34.77, if one spouse obtains possession or control of property belonging to the other, either before or after marriage, the owner of the property may maintain an action for it, or for any right growing out of it, in the same manner and to the same extent as if they were unmarried.

Sec. 25.15.030. Validity of conveyance, transfer, or lien between spouses.
A conveyance, transfer, or lien executed by one spouse to or in favor of the other is valid to the same extent as between other persons.

Sec. 25.15.040. Authority to act as attorney-in-fact for each other.
A husband or wife may appoint the other as attorney-in-fact to control or dispose of property, and may revoke the appointment to the same extent and manner as other persons.

Sec. 25.15.050. Nonliability for premarital or separate debts of other.
Subject to AS 34.77, neither spouse is liable for the debts or liabilities of the other incurred before marriage, and, except as otherwise provided, neither is liable for the separate debts of the other, nor is the rent or income of the property of one spouse liable for the separate debts of the other.

Sec. 25.15.060. Control and liability of separate property of spouse.
Subject to AS 34.77, the property and pecuniary rights of a married person at the time of marriage or afterwards that are acquired by gift, devise, or inheritance are not subject to the debts or contracts of the other spouse, and a spouse may manage, sell, convey, or devise the property and pecuniary rights that by will are separate property of that spouse.

Sec. 25.15.070. Property acquired during coverture by her own labor. [Repealed, § 95 ch 127 SLA 1974.]
Secs. 25.15.080 , 25.15.090. Husband’s return as affecting actions to which wife a party; liability for civil injuries committed by married woman. [Repealed, §§ 96, 97 ch 127 SLA 1974.]
Sec. 25.15.100. Married person may contract or incur liabilities.
A married person may make contracts and may incur liabilities, and the contracts and liabilities may be enforced by or against the person to the same extent and in the same manner as if the person were unmarried.

Sec. 25.15.110. Laws imposing civil disabilities upon married persons repealed.
All laws that impose or recognize civil disabilities upon a married person that are not imposed or recognized as existing as to the other spouse are repealed. For any unjust usurpation of property or natural rights a married person has the same right to appeal individually to all courts for redress that the other spouse has.

Chapter 20. Parent and Child.

Sec. 25.20.010. Age of majority.
A person is considered to have arrived at majority at the age of 18, and thereafter has control of the person’s own actions and business and has all the rights and is subject to all the liabilities of citizens of full age, except as otherwise provided by statute.

Sec. 25.20.020. Arrival at majority upon marriage.
A person arrives at the age of majority upon being married according to law, unless the person is under the marriageable age of consent as defined in AS 25.05.171(a), in which case the person reaches majority upon reaching the marriageable age of consent.

Sec. 25.20.025. Examination and treatment of minors.
 (a) Except as prohibited under AS 18.16.010(a)(3),
     (1) a minor who is living apart from the minor’s parents or legal guardian and who is managing the minor’s own financial affairs, regardless of the source or extent of income, may give consent for medical and dental services for the minor;

     (2) a minor may give consent for medical and dental services if the parent or legal guardian of the minor cannot be contacted or, if contacted, is unwilling either to grant or withhold consent; however, where the parent or legal guardian cannot be contacted or, if contacted, is unwilling either to grant or to withhold consent, the provider of medical or dental services shall counsel the minor keeping in mind not only the valid interests of the minor but also the valid interests of the parent or guardian and the family unit as best the provider presumes them;

     (3) a minor who is the parent of a child may give consent to medical and dental services for the minor or the child;

     (4) a minor may give consent for diagnosis, prevention or treatment of pregnancy, and for diagnosis and treatment of venereal disease;

     (5) the parent or guardian of the minor is relieved of all financial obligation to the provider of the service under this section.

 (b) The consent of a minor who represents that the minor may give consent under this section is considered valid if the person rendering the medical or dental service relied in good faith upon the representations of the minor.

 (c) Nothing in this section may be construed to remove liability of the person performing the examination or treatment for failure to meet the standards of care common throughout the health professions in the state or for intentional misconduct.




Sec. 25.20.030. Duty of parent and child to maintain each other.
Each parent is bound to maintain the parent’s children when poor and unable to work to maintain themselves. Each child is bound to maintain the child’s parents in like circumstances.

Sec. 25.20.040. Maintenance and education of minor out of income of the minor’s property.
If a minor who has a parent living has property from which income is sufficient for maintenance and education in a manner more expensive than the parent can reasonably afford, considering the situation of the parent’s family and all the circumstances of the case, the expenses of the minor’s maintenance and education may be defrayed out of the income of the property, in whole or in part, as judged reasonable by the court. The expenses may be allowed accordingly in the settlement of the accounts of the minor’s guardian.

Sec. 25.20.045. Legitimacy of children conceived by artificial insemination.
A child, born to a married woman by means of artificial insemination performed by a licensed physician and consented to in writing by both spouses, is considered for all purposes the natural and legitimate child of both spouses.

Sec. 25.20.050. Legitimation by subsequent marriage, acknowledgment in writing, or adjudication.
 (a) A child born out of wedlock is legitimated and considered the heir of the putative parent when (1) the putative parent subsequently marries the undisputed parent of the child; (2) for acknowledgments made before July 1, 1997, the putative parent acknowledges, in writing, being a parent of the child; (3) for acknowledgments made on or after July 1, 1997, the putative father and the mother both sign a form for acknowledging paternity under AS 18.50.165; or (4) the putative parent is determined by a superior court without jury or by another tribunal, upon sufficient evidence, to be a parent of the child. Acceptable evidence includes evidence that the putative parent’s conduct and bearing toward the child, either by word or act, indicates that the child is the child of the putative parent. That conduct may be construed by the tribunal to constitute evidence of parentage. When indefinite, ambiguous, or uncertain terms are used, the tribunal may use extrinsic evidence to show the putative parent’s intent.

 (b) The Bureau of Vital Statistics, as custodian of the original certificates of birth of all persons born in the state, is designated as the depository for such acknowledgment and adjudication. The acknowledgment or adjudication shall be forwarded to the bureau in accordance with appropriate regulations of the bureau, and shall be noted on and filed with the corresponding original certificate of birth.

 (c) In case of the birth in this state of a child out of wedlock and the legitimation of the child in accordance with this section, at the written request of the parents, or either of them or of the legal guardian, or of the person when of legal age, the Bureau of Vital Statistics shall prepare and place on file a substitute birth certificate, in accordance with the laws and regulations of the bureau pertaining to new certificates of this type.

 (d) The results of a genetic test that is of a type generally acknowledged as reliable by an accreditation body designated by the Secretary of Health and Human Services and performed by a laboratory approved by such an accreditation body shall be admitted and weighed in conjunction with other evidence in determining the statistical probability that the putative parent is a legal parent of the child in question. However, a genetic test described in this subsection that establishes a probability of parentage at 95 percent or higher creates a presumption of parentage that may be rebutted only by clear and convincing evidence.

 (e) Except as provided in (i) of this section, in proceedings in which paternity is contested, the tribunal shall order the parties, including the child, to submit to testing as described in (d) of this section upon request of
     (1) the child support services agency created in AS 25.27.010 or the child support enforcement agency of another state; or

     (2) a party, including a sworn statement
          (A) alleging the paternity of an individual and setting out facts that show a reasonable possibility that the mother and that individual had sexual contact that could have resulted in the conception of the child; or

          (B) denying the paternity of an individual and setting out facts that show a reasonable possibility that the mother and that individual did not have sexual contact that could have resulted in the conception of the child.

 (f) The child support enforcement agency or child support services agency, as appropriate, may recover the costs of testing ordered under (e) of this section from the alleged father unless the testing establishes that the individual is not the father, except that costs may not be recovered from a person who is a recipient of cash assistance or self-sufficiency services under AS 47.27 (Alaska temporary assistance program). For purposes of this subsection, a person who receives a diversion payment and self-sufficiency services under AS 47.27.026 is not considered to be a recipient of cash assistance or self-sufficiency services under AS 47.27.

 (g) A default judgment shall be entered against the defendant in an action where paternity is contested upon
     (1) a showing that process was served on the defendant as required under applicable state law and court rules;

     (2) a showing that the defendant has failed to appear at a hearing in the action or has failed to respond within a reasonable period of time as specified in court rules; and

     (3) any additional showing determined necessary by the court.

 (h) The tribunal in a paternity action shall give full faith and credit to a determination of paternity made by another state, whether established through voluntary acknowledgment or through administrative or judicial procedures.

 (i) If a tribunal finds that good cause exists not to order genetic testing after considering the best interests of the child, the tribunal may not order testing under (e) of this section.

 (j) Invoices, bills, or other standard documents showing charges for medical and related costs of pregnancy, childbirth, or genetic testing are admissible in an action to establish paternity without testimony or other evidence from the medical or other provider or third-party payor to provide the foundation for admissibility of the documents. The documents shall constitute prima facie evidence of the amounts incurred for such charges.

 (k) Upon the motion of the child support enforcement agency or child support services agency, as appropriate, or another party in the action to establish paternity, the tribunal shall issue a temporary order for support of the child whose paternity is being determined. The order may require periodic payments of support, health care coverage, or both. The order shall be effective until the tribunal issues a final order on paternity and a permanent order for support is issued or the tribunal dismisses the action. The temporary order may only be issued if the tribunal finds clear and convincing evidence of the paternity of the putative father on the basis of the results of the genetic tests and other evidence admitted in the proceeding.

 (l) The tribunal shall consider a completed and signed form for acknowledging paternity that meets the requirements of AS 18.50.165(a) as a legal finding of paternity for a child born out of wedlock. For an acknowledgment signed on or after July 1, 1997, the acknowledgment may only be withdrawn by the earlier of the following dates: (1) 60 days after the date that the person signed it, or (2) the date on which judicial or administrative procedures are initiated to establish child support in the form of periodic payments or health care coverage for, or to determine paternity of, the child who is the subject of the acknowledgement. After this time period has passed, the acknowledgment may only be contested in superior court on the basis of fraud, duress, or material mistake. The parent wishing to contest the acknowledgment carries the burden of proof by a preponderance of the evidence. Unless good cause is shown, the court may not stay child support or other legal responsibilities while the action to contest the acknowledgment is pending.

 (m) If a parent signs an acknowledgment of paternity under (a) of this section and does not successfully challenge the acknowledgment under (l) of this section, the child born out of wedlock is considered legitimated and the heir of the parent without further action of the tribunal to ratify the acknowledgment of paternity.

 (n) Each paternity order or acknowledgment made under this section must include in the records relating to the matter the social security numbers, if ascertainable, of the following persons:
     (1) the father;

     (2) the mother;

     (3) the child.

 (o) In this section, unless the context requires otherwise, “tribunal” means a court, administrative agency, or quasi-judicial entity authorized by state law to determine parentage.




Sec. 25.20.055. Early acknowledgement of paternity program.
 (a) When a birth occurs to an unmarried woman in a hospital or en route to a hospital to which the woman is later admitted, the hospital shall ensure that a staff member
     (1) meets with the woman before release from the hospital;

     (2) attempts to meet with the father of the unmarried woman’s child, if possible;

     (3) presents to the mother and, if possible, the father, a pamphlet or statement regarding the rights and responsibilities of a natural parent; the Department of Health and Social Services shall prepare this pamphlet and distribute copies of it to each hospital in the state, to each physician in the state whose practice includes attendance at births, to each certified nurse midwife and certified direct-entry midwife in the state, and to other interested persons in the state who request copies;

     (4) provides to the mother and, if possible, the father, all forms, statements, or agreements necessary to voluntarily establish a parent and child relationship, including an acknowledgment of paternity form prepared under AS 18.50.165;

     (5) on request of the mother and father, assists the father in completing specific forms, statements, or agreements necessary to establish a parent and child relationship between the father and the child; and

     (6) on request of the mother and father, mails a completed voluntary acknowledgment of paternity form to the state registrar for filing under AS 18.50.165.

 (b) When a birth occurs to an unmarried woman who is not in a hospital for the birth nor admitted to a hospital immediately after the birth, and the birth is attended by a physician, certified nurse midwife, or certified direct-entry midwife, the physician, certified nurse midwife, or certified direct-entry midwife shall perform the duties described in (a)(2) – (6) of this section or ensure that an agent performs those duties.

 (c) When a birth occurs in a situation that is not covered by either (a) or (b) of this section, any adult may, upon request of the father and mother, assist them in filing a voluntary acknowledgement of paternity form with the state registrar under AS 18.50.165.

 (d) Notwithstanding (a) of this section, the Department of Health and Social Services may adopt regulations to establish exceptions for good cause that identify circumstances under which a hospital is not required to comply with (a) of this section. A hospital may be excused from complying with (a) of this section if the hospital meets those regulatory requirements.




Sec. 25.20.060. Petition for award of child custody.
 (a) If there is a dispute over child custody, either parent may petition the superior court for resolution of the matter under AS 25.20.060 — 25.20.130. The court shall award custody on the basis of the best interests of the child. In determining the best interests of the child, the court shall consider all relevant factors, including those factors enumerated in AS 25.24.150(c), and the presumption established in AS 25.24.150(g). In a custody determination under this section, the court shall provide for visitation by a grandparent or other person if that is in the best interests of the child.

 (b) Neither parent, regardless of the question of the child’s legitimacy, is entitled to preference in the awarding of custody.

 (c) The court may award shared custody to both parents if shared custody is determined by the court to be in the best interests of the child. An award of shared custody shall assure that the child has frequent and continuing contact with each parent to the maximum extent possible.

 (d) If the court finds that a parent or child is a victim of domestic violence, the court may order that the address and telephone number of the parent or child be kept confidential in the proceedings.




Sec. 25.20.061. Visitation in proceedings involving domestic violence.
If visitation is awarded to a parent who has committed a crime involving domestic violence, against the other parent or a child of the two parents, within the five years preceding the award of visitation, the court may set conditions for the visitation, including
     (1) the transfer of the child for visitation must occur in a protected setting;

     (2) visitation shall be supervised by another person or agency and under specified conditions as ordered by the court;

     (3) the perpetrator shall attend and complete, to the satisfaction of the court, a program for the rehabilitation of perpetrators of domestic violence that meets the standards set by the Department of Corrections under AS 44.28.020(b), or other counseling; the perpetrator shall be required to pay the costs of the program or other counseling;

     (4) the perpetrator shall abstain from possession or consumption of alcohol or controlled substances during the visitation and for 24 hours before visitation;

     (5) the perpetrator shall pay costs of supervised visitation as set by the court;

     (6) the prohibition of overnight visitation;

     (7) the perpetrator shall post a bond to the court for the return and safety of the child; and

     (8) any other condition necessary for the safety of the child, the other parent, or other household member.




Sec. 25.20.065. Visitation rights of grandparent.
 (a) Except as provided in (b) of this section, a child’s grandparent may petition the superior court for an order establishing reasonable rights of visitation between the grandparent and child if
     (1) the grandparent has established or attempted to establish ongoing personal contact with the child; and

     (2) visitation by the grandparent is in the child’s best interest.

 (b) After a decree or final order relating to child custody is entered under AS 25.20.060 or AS 25.24.150 or relating to an adoption under AS 25.23, a grandparent may petition under this section only if
     (1) the grandparent did not request the court to grant visitation rights during the pendency of proceedings under AS 25.20.060, AS 25.23, or AS 25.24; or

     (2) there has been a change in circumstances relating to the custodial parent or the minor child that justifies reconsideration of the grandparent’s visitation rights.

 (c) When determining whether to grant rights of visitation between a grandparent and grandchild under this section, AS 25.20.060, or AS 25.24, and when determining the terms and conditions to be attached to a right of grandparent visitation, the court shall consider whether there is a history of child abuse or domestic violence attributable to the grandparent’s son or daughter who is a parent of the grandchild.




Sec. 25.20.070. Temporary custody of the child.
Unless it is shown to be detrimental to the welfare of the child considering the factors under AS 25.24.150(c), or unless the presumption under AS 25.24.150(g) is present, the child shall have, to the greatest degree practical, equal access to both parents during the time that the court considers an award of custody under AS 25.20.060 — 25.20.130.

Sec. 25.20.080. Mediation of child custody matter.
 (a) Except as provided in (f) and (g) of this section, at any time within 30 days after a petition for child custody is filed under AS 25.20.060 the court may order the parties to submit to mediation. Each party has the right to challenge peremptorily one mediator appointed.

 (b) Mediation shall be conducted informally as a conference, or by telephone, or series of conferences, as determined by the mediator. The parties to the action and a court-appointed representative of the minor children shall attend.

 (c) If the mediator determines that mediation efforts are unsuccessful, the mediator shall terminate mediation and notify the court that mediation efforts have failed. The custody proceeding shall proceed in the usual manner.

 (d) Upon submission of the parties to mediation under this section, a pending child custody proceeding shall be stayed for a period of 30 days or until the court is notified that mediation efforts have failed. All court orders made during the pending custody proceeding remain in effect during the period of mediation.

 (e) Costs of mediation shall be paid as ordered by the court by one party, by both parties, or by the state if both parties are indigent.

 (f) The court may not order or refer parties to mediation in a proceeding concerning custody or visitation of a child if a protective order issued or filed under AS 18.66.100 — 18.66.180 is in effect. The court may not order or refer parties to mediation if a party objects on the grounds that domestic violence has occurred between the parties unless the court finds that the conditions of (g)(1) — (3) of this section are met. If the court proposes or suggests mediation under this subsection,
     (1) mediation may not occur unless the victim of the alleged domestic violence agrees to the mediation; and

     (2) the court shall advise the parties that each party has the right to not agree to mediation and that the decision of each party will not bias other decisions of the court.

 (g) A mediator who receives a referral or order from a court to conduct mediation under (a) of this section shall evaluate whether domestic violence has occurred between the parties. A mediator may not engage in mediation when either party has committed a crime involving domestic violence unless
     (1) mediation is requested by the victim of the alleged domestic violence, or proposed by the court and agreed to by the victim;

     (2) mediation is provided by a mediator who is trained in domestic violence in a manner that protects the safety of the victim and any household member, taking into account the results of an assessment of the potential danger posed by the perpetrator and the risk of harm to the victim; and

     (3) the victim is permitted to have in attendance a person of the victim’s choice, including an attorney.




Sec. 25.20.090. Factors for consideration in awarding shared child custody.
In determining whether to award shared custody of a child the court shall consider
     (1) the child’s preference if the child is of sufficient age and capacity to form a preference;

     (2) the needs of the child;

     (3) the stability of the home environment likely to be offered by each parent;

     (4) the education of the child;

     (5) the advantages of keeping the child in the community where the child presently resides;

     (6) the optimal time for the child to spend with each parent considering
          (A) the actual time spent with each parent;

          (B) the proximity of each parent to the other and to the school in which the child is enrolled;

          (C) the feasibility of travel between the parents;

          (D) special needs unique to the child that may be better met by one parent than the other;

          (E) the willingness and ability of each parent to facilitate and encourage a close and continuing relationship between the other parent and the child, except that the court may not consider this willingness and ability if one parent shows that the other parent has sexually assaulted or engaged in domestic violence against the parent or a child, and that a continuing relationship with the other parent will endanger the health or safety of either the parent or the child;

     (7) any findings and recommendations of a neutral mediator;

     (8) any evidence of domestic violence, child abuse, or child neglect in the proposed custodial household or a history of violence between the parents;

     (9) evidence that substance abuse by either parent or other members of the household directly affects the emotional or physical well-being of the child;

     (10) other factors the court considers pertinent.




Sec. 25.20.095. Custody and visitation proceedings involving a military parent; delegation of visitation.
 (a) In determining the availability of a parent for custody or visitation, if a parent is deployed or in a position where the parent may be deployed, the court shall take particular care to ensure that the child has the maximum opportunity, consistent with the best interests of the child, to have contact with the parent. Except as provided in this section, a parent’s temporary duty, mobilization, or deployment to military service and the resultant temporary disruption to the child of the parent may not be a factor in a court’s decision to grant or deny a petition for custody or visitation.

 (b) A parent who is deployed may petition a court of competent jurisdiction for custody or visitation. The petition shall be construed to be an application for affirmative relief, consistent with the protections afforded under 50 U.S.C. App. 501 — 596 (Servicemembers Civil Relief Act) and may include a request to delegate the deployed parent’s visitation rights to a family member.

 (c) A court shall order a delegation of visitation rights based on a petition filed under (b) of this section if the court finds that
     (1) the family member receiving the delegation has an existing close relationship to the child; and

     (2) the delegation is in the child’s best interest.

 (d) A hearing on a petition filed under this section shall be expedited by the court on a motion filed by the deployed parent.

 (e) A parent who is deployed may not be found to have waived any rights or protections with regard to custody or visitation of the deployed parent’s child unless the deployed parent expressly waives the right or protection in writing or on the record.

 (f) A court order entered under this section must require that
     (1) the nondeployed parent make the child reasonably available for visitation to the deployed parent when the deployed parent is on leave if the visits are in the child’s best interest;

     (2) each parent facilitate contact, including telephonic and electronic contact, between the other parent and the child if the contact is in the child’s best interest; electronic contact with a video image must be facilitated whenever feasible;

     (3) the deployed parent provide timely information to the nondeployed parent regarding the deployed parent’s leave schedule; and

     (4) each parent provide immediate notification of a change of address or contact information as provided under AS 25.20.110(e)(5).

 (g) In making a determination of the best interests of the child, the court shall consider the factors under AS 25.24.150(c) and apply the rebuttable presumption under AS 25.24.150(g) to visitation, delegation, and custody orders issued under this section. In addition, there is a rebuttable presumption that a deployed parent’s visitation rights may not be delegated to a family member who has a history of perpetrating domestic violence against a spouse, a child, or a domestic living partner, or to a family member with an individual in the family member’s household who has a history of perpetrating domestic violence against a spouse, a child, or a domestic living partner.

 (h) In this section,
     (1) “deployment” or “deployed” means military services performed in compliance with a valid order received by an active duty or reserve member of the armed services of the United States, National Guard, or United States Coast Guard to report for combat operations, contingency operations, peacekeeping operations, temporary duty, a remote tour of duty, or other active service for which the deploying parent reports unaccompanied by any family member;

     (2) “family member” means a person who is an adult sibling, aunt, uncle, first cousin, or grandparent related by blood, adoption, or marriage or a stepparent to the child who is the subject of a custody order issued under this section;

     (3) “military service” includes the period from which the deployed parent receives and is subject to deployment orders and the period in which the parent is awaiting travel or remains deployed because of sickness, wounds, leave, or other lawful cause;

     (4) “parent” includes a legal guardian of the child.




Sec. 25.20.100. Reasons for denial to be set out.
If a parent or the guardian ad litem requests shared custody of a child and the court denies the request, the reasons for the denial shall be stated on the record.

Sec. 25.20.110. Modification of child custody or visitation.
 (a) An award of custody of a child or visitation with the child may be modified if the court determines that a change in circumstances requires the modification of the award and the modification is in the best interests of the child. If a parent opposes the modification of the award of custody or visitation with the child and the modification is granted, the court shall enter on the record its reason for the modification.

 (b) When making a determination relating to child custody under (a) of this section, the court shall consider the past history of the parents with respect to their compliance with the child support payment provisions of temporary or permanent support orders or agreements relating to the child or to other children. Under this subsection, the court may consider a parent’s failure to pay child support only if the parent had actual knowledge of the amount of the child support obligation and had funds available for payment of support or could have obtained those funds through reasonable efforts, as determined by the court.

 (c) In a proceeding involving the modification of an award for custody of a child or visitation with a child, a finding that a crime involving domestic violence has occurred since the last custody or visitation determination is a finding of change of circumstances under (a) of this section.

 (d) Except as provided in (e) — (h) of this section, a parent’s temporary duty, mobilization, or deployment to military service and the resultant temporary disruption to the schedule of a child of the parent may not be a factor in finding a change of circumstances on a motion to modify child custody or visitation.

 (e) A court may provide for a temporary modification of a custody or visitation order during the period of a parent’s deployment to military service to make reasonable accommodation for the deployment. The temporary order must specify that deployment is the basis of the order and include provisions for
     (1) custody or reasonable visitation during a period of leave granted to the deployed parent if the custody or visitation is in the child’s best interest;

     (2) termination of the temporary order and resumption of the permanent order within 10 days after notification of the deployed parent’s ability to resume custody or visitation unless the court finds that resumption of the custody or visitation order in effect before deployment is no longer in the child’s best interest; the nondeployed parent shall bear the burden of proving that resumption of the order is no longer in the child’s best interest;

     (3) a hearing if a child of a deployed parent has been moved out of state and the nondeployed parent has filed a motion that alleges that resumption of the permanent custody order will result in immediate danger of irreparable harm to the child or that the presumption under AS 25.24.150(g) exists;

     (4) delegation, on request of the deployed parent, of the deployed parent’s visitation rights under an existing order, if any, to another family member who has an existing close relationship to the child if the delegation is in the child’s best interest; and

     (5) immediate notification by each parent of a change of address or contact information to the other parent and to the court; if a valid court order issued under AS 12.61.120 or AS 25.20.060 or an equivalent provision in another jurisdiction is in effect that requires that the address or contact information of the parent be kept confidential, the notification shall be made to the court only, and a copy of the order shall be included in the notification.

 (f) A court shall expedite a hearing to modify custody or visitation on a motion made by a parent who is subject to deployment.

 (g) In making a determination of the best interests of the child, the court shall consider the factors under AS 25.24.150(c) and apply the rebuttable presumption under AS 25.24.150(g) to visitation, delegation, and custody orders issued under this section. In addition, there is a rebuttable presumption that a deployed parent’s visitation rights may not be delegated to a family member who has a history of perpetrating domestic violence against a spouse, a child, or a domestic living partner, or to a family member with an individual in the family member’s household who has a history of perpetrating domestic violence against a spouse, a child, or a domestic living partner.

 (h) In this section, “deployment,” “deployed,” “family member,” “military service,” and “parent” have the meanings given in AS 25.20.095.




Sec. 25.20.115. Attorney fee awards in custody and visitation matters.
In an action to modify, vacate, or enforce that part of an order providing for custody of a child or visitation with a child, the court may, upon request of a party, award attorney fees and costs of the action. In awarding attorney fees and costs under this section, the court shall consider the relative financial resources of the parties and whether the parties have acted in good faith.

Sec. 25.20.120. Closure of custody proceedings and records.
At any stage of a proceeding involving custody of a child the court may, if it is in the best interests of the child, close the proceeding to the public or order the court records closed to the public temporarily or permanently. The court may modify or vacate an order under this section at any time.

Sec. 25.20.130. Access to records of the child.
A parent who is not granted custody under AS 25.20.060 — 25.20.130 has the same access to the medical, dental, school, and other records of the child as the custodial parent.

Sec. 25.20.140. Action for failure to permit visitation with minor child.
 (a) When a court order is specific as to when a custodian of a minor child must permit another person to have visitation with that child, and the custodian fails, wilfully and without just excuse, to permit visitation with the child in substantial conformance with the court order, the person entitled to visitation has a separate cause of action against the custodian for damages.

 (b) The amount of damages recoverable under this section is $200 for each failure of the custodian, wilfully and without just excuse, to permit visitation with the child for substantially the length of time and substantially in the same manner as specified in the court order. This amount may not be increased or decreased once liability has been established. The custodian is not liable for more than one failure in respect to what is, under the court order, a single continuous period of visitation. The prevailing party in an action commenced under this section is entitled to recover a reasonable attorney fee.

 (c) As used in this section,
     (1) “court order” means a decree, judgment, or order issued by a court of competent jurisdiction;

     (2) “custodian” means a natural person who has been awarded custody, either temporary or permanent, of a minor child;

     (3) “just excuse” includes illness of the child which makes it dangerous to the health of the child for visitation to take place in conformance with the court order; “just excuse” does not include the wish of the child not to have visitation with the person entitled to it.

Chapter 23. Adoption.

Sec. 25.23.005. Construction of chapter; rights of persons affected by adoption.
This chapter shall be liberally construed to the end that the best interests of adopted children are promoted. Due regard shall be given to the rights of all persons affected by a child’s adoption.

Sec. 25.23.010. Who may be adopted.
Any person may be adopted.

Sec. 25.23.020. Who may adopt.
 (a) The following persons may adopt:
     (1) a husband and wife together;

     (2) an unmarried adult;

     (3) the unmarried father or mother of the person to be adopted;

     (4) a married person without the other spouse joining as a petitioner, if the person to be adopted is not the other spouse, and if
          (A) the other spouse is a parent of the person to be adopted and consents to the adoption;

          (B) the petitioner and the other spouse are legally separated; or

          (C) the failure of the other spouse to join in the petition or to agree to the adoption is excused by the court by reason of prolonged unexplained absence, unavailability, incapacity, or circumstances constituting an unreasonable withholding of consent.

 (b) Nothing in this section affects legitimation under AS 25.20.050.




Sec. 25.23.030. Venue.
 (a) Proceedings for adoption shall be brought in the superior court for the district in which, at the time of filing or granting the petition, the petitioner or the person to be adopted resides or is in military service, or in which the agency having the care, custody, or control of the minor is located.

 (b) If the court finds in the interest of substantial justice, under AS 22.10.040, that the adoption proceeding should be heard in another judicial district, the court may transfer, stay, or dismiss the proceeding in whole or in part on conditions that are just.

 (c) Proceedings for the termination of parental rights on the grounds set out in AS 25.23.180(c)(2) shall be brought in the superior court for the district in which the child that is the subject of the action resides.

 (d) The venue for an adoption proceeding for a child in state custody under AS 47.10 is the
     (1) superior court where the child-in-need-of-aid proceeding is pending as provided under AS 47.10.111; or

     (2) judicial district in which the petitioner resides if the petitioner provides notice to all of the parties to the child-in-need-of-aid proceeding and no party objects.




Sec. 25.23.040. Persons required to consent to adoption.
 (a) Unless consent is not required under AS 25.23.050, a petition to adopt a minor may be granted only if written consent to a particular adoption has been executed by
     (1) the mother of the minor;

     (2) the father of the minor, if the father was married to the mother at the time the minor was conceived or at any time after conception, the minor is the father’s child by adoption, or the father has otherwise legitimated the minor under the laws of the state;

     (3) any person lawfully entitled to custody of the minor or empowered to consent;

     (4) the court having jurisdiction to determine custody of the minor, if the legal guardian or custodian of the person of the minor is not empowered to consent to the adoption;

     (5) the minor, if 10 years of age or older, unless the court in the best interest of the minor dispenses with the minor’s consent; and

     (6) the spouse of the minor to be adopted.

 (b) A petition to adopt an adult may be granted only if written consent to adoption has been executed by the adult and the adult’s spouse or by the guardian or conservator of an incapacitated adult.




Sec. 25.23.050. Persons as to whom consent and notice not required.
 (a) Consent to adoption is not required of
     (1) for purposes of this section, a parent who has abandoned a child for a period of at least six months;

     (2) a parent of a child in the custody of another, if the parent for a period of at least one year has failed significantly without justifiable cause, including but not limited to indigency,
          (A) to communicate meaningfully with the child; or

          (B) to provide for the care and support of the child as required by law or judicial decree;

     (3) the father of a minor if the father’s consent is not required by AS 25.23.040(a)(2);

     (4) a parent who has relinquished the right to consent under AS 25.23.180;

     (5) a parent whose parental rights have been terminated by order of the court under AS 25.23.180(c)(2) or AS 47.10.080(c)(3);

     (6) a parent judicially declared incompetent or mentally defective if the court dispenses with the parent’s consent;

     (7) a parent of the person to be adopted, if the person is 18 or more years of age;

     (8) a guardian or custodian specified in AS 25.23.040(a)(3) or (4) who has failed to respond in writing to a request for consent for a period of 60 days or who, after examination of the guardian’s or custodian’s written reasons for withholding consent, is found by the court to be withholding consent unreasonably; or

     (9) the spouse of the person to be adopted, if the requirement of consent to the adoption is waived by the court by reason of prolonged unexplained absence, unavailability, incapacity, or circumstances constituting an unreasonable withholding of consent.

 (b) Except as provided in AS 25.23.100, notice of a hearing on a petition for adoption need not be given to a person whose consent is not required or to a person whose consent or relinquishment has been filed with the petition.




Sec. 25.23.060. Execution of consent; consent as power of attorney.
Sec. 25.23.060. Execution of consent; consent as power of attorney.
 (a) The required consent to adoption shall be executed at any time after the birth of the child in the presence of the court or in the presence of a person authorized to take acknowledgments. The consent is not valid unless the consent form states that the person consenting to the adoption has the right to withdraw that consent as provided in AS 25.23.070(b), and unless the person consenting to the adoption acknowledges receipt of a copy of the consent form. The person giving consent shall state in the consent form whether the child is a member of an Indian tribe or the biological child of a member of an Indian tribe, so that the court may determine whether the provisions of 25 U.S.C. 1901 — 1963 (Indian Child Welfare Act of 1978) apply.

 (b) A consent that does not name or otherwise identify the adopting parent is valid if the consent is executed in the presence of the court or a person authorized to take acknowledgments and contains a statement by the person whose consent it is that the person consenting voluntarily executed the consent irrespective of disclosure of the name or other identification of the adopting parent.

 (c) A consent executed under this section is effective as a power of attorney under AS 13.26.066. Unless the consent form provides otherwise, and regardless of whether the form names or identifies the adoptive parent, the consent delegates to the adoptive parent all powers that may be delegated under AS 13.26.066. The power of attorney takes effect when the child is delivered to the adoptive parent, and remains in effect as long as the consent is in effect; but the power of attorney is not effective beyond one year, unless the court extends it for good cause. The power of attorney does not terminate on the death or disability of the person executing the consent, unless the consent form so states. This subsection may not be construed to alter the requirements of AS 47.70 (the Interstate Compact for the Placement of Children).




 (a) The required consent to adoption shall be executed at any time after the birth of the child in the presence of the court or in the presence of a person authorized to take acknowledgments. The consent is not valid unless the consent form states that the person consenting to the adoption has the right to withdraw that consent as provided in AS 25.23.070(b), and unless the person consenting to the adoption acknowledges receipt of a copy of the consent form. The person giving consent shall state in the consent form whether the child is a member of an Indian tribe or the biological child of a member of an Indian tribe, so that the court may determine whether the provisions of 25 U.S.C. 1901 — 1963 (Indian Child Welfare Act of 1978) apply.

 (b) A consent that does not name or otherwise identify the adopting parent is valid if the consent is executed in the presence of the court or a person authorized to take acknowledgments and contains a statement by the person whose consent it is that the person consenting voluntarily executed the consent irrespective of disclosure of the name or other identification of the adopting parent.

 (c) A consent executed under this section is effective as a power of attorney under AS 13.26.066. Unless the consent form provides otherwise, and regardless of whether the form names or identifies the adoptive parent, the consent delegates to the adoptive parent all powers that may be delegated under AS 13.26.066. The power of attorney takes effect when the child is delivered to the adoptive parent, and remains in effect as long as the consent is in effect; but the power of attorney is not effective beyond one year, unless the court extends it for good cause. The power of attorney does not terminate on the death or disability of the person executing the consent, unless the consent form so states. This subsection may not be construed to alter the requirements of AS 47.70 (the Interstate Compact on the Placement of Children).




Sec. 25.23.070. Withdrawal of consent.
 (a) A consent to adoption may not be withdrawn after the entry of a decree of adoption.

 (b) A consent to adoption may be withdrawn before the entry of a decree of adoption, within 10 days after the consent is given, by delivering written notice to the person obtaining the consent, or after the 10-day period, if the court finds, after notice and opportunity to be heard is afforded to petitioner, the person seeking the withdrawal, and the agency placing the child for adoption, that the withdrawal is in the best interest of the person to be adopted and the court orders the withdrawal.




Sec. 25.23.080. Petition for adoption.
 (a) The caption of a petition for adoption shall be styled substantially “In the Matter of the Adoption of …………….”. The person to be adopted shall be designated in the caption under the name by which the person is to be known if the petition is granted. If the child is placed for adoption by an agency, any name by which the child was previously known may not be disclosed in the petition or in the decree of adoption.

 (b) A petition for adoption shall be signed and verified by the petitioner, filed with the clerk of the court, and state
     (1) the date and place of birth of the person to be adopted, if known;

     (2) the name to be used for the person to be adopted;

     (3) the date of placement of the minor and the name of the person placing the minor;

     (4) the full name, age, place, and duration of residence of the petitioner;

     (5) the marital status of the petitioner, including the date and place of marriage, if married;

     (6) that the petitioner has facilities and resources, including those available under a hard-to-place child subsidy agreement, suitable to provide for the nurture and care of the minor to be adopted, and that it is the desire of the petitioner to establish the relationship of parent and child with the person to be adopted;

     (7) a description and estimate of value of any property of the person to be adopted; and

     (8) the name of any person whose consent to the adoption is required, but who has not consented, and facts or circumstances that excuse the lack of the consent normally required to the adoption.

 (c) A certified copy of the birth certificate or verification of the birth record of the person to be adopted, if available, the information specified in AS 25.23.185(a), if available, and the required consents, relinquishments, and termination orders shall be filed with the clerk.

 (d) A petitioner petitioning to adopt a child in state custody under AS 47.10 shall file the petition for adoption in either the court where the child-in-need-of-aid proceedings are pending or the judicial district in which the petitioner resides, as required under AS 25.23.030(d) and AS 47.10.111.




Sec. 25.23.090. Report of petitioner’s expenditures.
 (a) Except as specified in (b) of this section, the petitioner in any proceeding for the adoption of a minor shall file, before the petition is heard, a full accounting report in a manner acceptable to the court of all disbursements of anything of value made or agreed to be made by or on behalf of the petitioner in connection with the adoption. The report must show any expenses incurred in connection with
     (1) the birth of the minor;

     (2) placement of the minor with petitioner;

     (3) medical or hospital care received by the mother or by the minor during the mother’s prenatal care and confinement; and

     (4) services relating to the adoption or to the placement of the minor for adoption that were received by or on behalf of the petitioner, either natural parent of the minor, or any other person.

 (b) This section does not apply to an adoption by a stepparent whose spouse is a natural or adoptive parent of the child.

 (c) A report made under this section shall be signed and verified by the petitioner.




Sec. 25.23.100. Notice of petition, investigation, and hearing.
 (a) After the filing of a petition to adopt a minor, the court shall fix a time and place for hearing the petition unless the petition is held in abeyance under AS 47.10.111. At least 20 days before the date of hearing, the petitioner shall give notice of the filing of the petition and of the time and place of hearing to (1) the department, unless the adoption is by a stepparent of the child; (2) any agency or person whose consent to the adoption is required by this chapter, but who has not consented; and (3) a person whose consent is dispensed with upon any ground mentioned in AS 25.23.050(a)(1) — (3), (6), (8), and (9), but who has not consented. The notice to the department shall be accompanied by a copy of the petition.

 (b) Notice to persons specified in AS 25.23.050 must include a statement of the grounds under which consent to the adoption is not required. Notice given under this section shall be adequate to give actual notice of the proceedings, taking into account education and language differences that are known or reasonably ascertainable by the petitioner or the department. The notice of hearing must contain all names by which the minor has been identified and must state in summary form the effect of a decree of adoption. Notice shall be given in the manner appropriate under rules of civil procedure for the service of process in a civil action in this state or in any manner the court by order directs. Notice by publication may not be given unless, for compelling reasons, the court orders it to be given under the procedure established in Rule 4 of the Alaska Rules of Civil Procedure. Proof of the giving of the notice shall be filed with the court before the petition is heard, subject to the time limitations in (e) of this section.

 (c) A reasonable investigation shall be made by the department or the petitioner to assure that all persons listed in (a) of this section are located and given notice of the proposed adoption. The investigation shall be conducted so that the rights of all parties are protected, including but not limited to the right to privacy and the right to be notified. An affidavit describing the investigation shall be filed with the court if all persons listed in (a) of this section are not located.

 (d) Except as provided in (g) and (i) of this section, an investigation shall be made by the department or any other qualified agency or person designated by the court to inquire into the conditions and antecedents of a minor sought to be adopted and of the petitioner for the purpose of ascertaining whether the adoptive home is a suitable home for the minor and whether the proposed adoption is in the best interest of the minor.

 (e) A written report of the investigation shall be filed with the court by the investigator before the petition is heard so long as the report is filed within 30 days of the designation by the court of the department, agency, or person to make the investigation.

 (f) The report of the investigation must contain an evaluation of the placement with a recommendation as to the granting of the petition for adoption and any other information the court requires regarding the petitioner or the minor.

 (g) Unless directed by the court, an investigation and report is not required in cases in which an agency is a party or joins in the petition for adoption, a stepparent is the petitioner, the person to be adopted is within the fourth degree of lineal or collateral consanguinity to the petitioner, or the person to be adopted is an adult. In other cases, the court may waive the investigation only if it appears that waiver is in the best interest of the minor and that the adoptive home and the minor are suited to each other. The department which is required to consent to the adoption may give consent without making the investigation.

 (h) The department or the agency or persons designated by the court to make the required investigation may request other departments or agencies within or outside of this state to make investigations of designated portions of the inquiry as may be appropriate and to make a written report as a supplemental report to the court and shall make similar investigations and reports on behalf of other agencies or persons designated by the courts of this state or another state.

 (i) After the filing of a petition to adopt an adult the court by order shall direct that a copy of the petition and a notice of the time and place of the hearing be given to any person whose consent to the adoption is required, but who has not consented. The court may order an appropriate investigation to assist it in determining whether the adoption is in the best interest of the persons involved.

 (j) [Repealed, § 22 ch 140 SLA 1986.]




Sec. 25.23.110. Required residence of minor.
A final decree of adoption may not be issued until the minor to be adopted, other than a stepchild of the petitioner, has lived in the adoptive home and the department or any other qualified agency or person designated by the court has had an opportunity to observe or investigate the adoptive home. This observation or investigation is not required in proceedings where an investigation is not required under AS 25.23.100(g) and (i).

Sec. 25.23.120. Hearing.
 (a) The presence of the petitioner and the person to be adopted is not required at the hearing on the petition unless ordered by the court.

 (b) The court may continue the hearing from time to time to permit further observation, investigation, or consideration of any facts or circumstances affecting the granting of the petition.

 (c) If at the conclusion of the hearing the court determines that the required consents have been obtained or excused and that the adoption is in the best interest of the person to be adopted, it may issue a final decree of adoption.

 (d) If the requirements for a decree under (c) of this section have not been met, the court shall dismiss the petition and determine, in the best interests of the minor, the person including the petitioner to have custody of the minor.




Sec. 25.23.125. Preference of minor to be adopted; guardian ad litem; protective orders.
 (a) If the person to be adopted is a minor under the age of 10 and the person is of sufficient age and intelligence to state desires concerning the adoption, the court shall consider the person’s desires.

 (b) The court may appoint a guardian ad litem or attorney, or both, under AS 25.24.310 for a minor who is to be adopted or for a minor whose parent is the subject of a petition to terminate parental rights under AS 25.23.180(c).

 (c) The court may issue a protective order or other order that is in the best interest of a minor who is to be adopted.




Sec. 25.23.127. Adult family member preference to adopt.
Taking into consideration a child’s stated preference under AS 25.23.125(a) and consent given under AS 25.23.040(a)(5), and unless the court finds that a petition to adopt the child by an adult family member is contrary to the best interest of the child, the court shall grant a petition to adopt a child by an adult family member who has had physical custody of the child for at least 12 consecutive months before the parental rights to the child have been terminated. In this section, “adult family member” has the meaning given in AS 47.10.990.

Sec. 25.23.130. Effect of adoption decree; effect of termination of parental rights.
 (a) A final decree of adoption, whether issued by a court of this state or of any other state, has the following effect as to matters within the jurisdiction or before a court of this state:
     (1) except with respect to a spouse of the petitioner and relatives of the spouse, to relieve the natural parents of the adopted person of all parental rights and responsibilities, and, except as provided in (c) of this section, to terminate all legal relationships between the adopted person and the natural parents and other relatives of the adopted person, so that the adopted person thereafter is a stranger to the former relatives for all purposes including inheritance, unless the decree of adoption specifically provides for continuation of inheritance rights, and the interpretation or construction of documents, statutes, and instruments, whether executed before or after the adoption is decreed, that do not expressly include the person by name or by some designation not based on a parent and child or blood relationship; and

     (2) to create the relationship of parent and child between petitioner and the adopted person, as if the adopted person were a legitimate blood descendant of the petitioner, for all purposes including inheritance and applicability of statutes, documents, and instruments, whether executed before or after the adoption is decreed, that do not expressly exclude an adopted person from their operation or effect.

 (b) Notwithstanding the provisions of (a) of this section, if a parent of a child dies without the relationship of parent and child having been previously terminated and a spouse of the living parent thereafter adopts the child, the child’s right of inheritance from or through the deceased parent is unaffected by the adoption.

 (c) Nothing in this chapter prohibits an adoption that allows visitation between the adopted person and that person’s natural parents or other relatives.

 (d) Except as provided in (e) and (f) of this section, a decree terminating parental rights on the grounds set out in AS 25.23.180(c)(2) voids all legal relationships between the child and the biological parent so that the child is a stranger to the biological parent and to relatives of the biological parent for all purposes, including interpretation of documents executed before or after the termination of parental rights that do not include the child by name or by a description not based on a parental or blood relationship.

 (e) Inheritance rights between a child and a biological parent are not voided by a decree terminating parental rights on the grounds set out in AS 25.23.180(c)(2) unless the decree specifically provides for the termination of inheritance rights.

 (f) A decree ordering termination of parental rights between a biological parent and a child on the grounds specified in AS 25.23.180(c)(2) does not relieve the biological parent of an obligation to pay child support unless the decree specifically provides for the termination of the obligation to pay child support. A child support obligation under this subsection does not entitle the obligor to contact or otherwise maintain a relationship with the child.




Sec. 25.23.140. Appeal and validation of adoption decree.
 (a) An appeal from any final order or decree rendered under this chapter may be taken in the manner and time provided for appeal from a judgment in a civil action.

 (b) Subject to the disposition of an appeal, upon the expiration of one year after an adoption decree is issued, the decree may not be questioned by any person including the petitioner, in any manner upon any ground, including fraud, misrepresentation, failure to give any required notice, or lack of jurisdiction of the parties or of the subject matter, unless, in the case of the adoption of a minor the petitioner has not taken custody of the minor, or, in the case of the adoption of an adult, the adult had no knowledge of the decree within the one-year period.

 (c) Subject to the disposition of an appeal, one year after a decree is issued terminating parental rights on grounds set out in AS 25.23.180(c)(2) , the order may not be challenged on any ground, including fraud, misrepresentation, failure to give notice, or lack of jurisdiction of the parties or of the subject matter.




Sec. 25.23.150. Confidential nature of hearings and records in adoption proceedings.
 (a) All hearings held in proceedings under this chapter shall be held in closed court without admittance of any person other than essential officers of the court, the parties, their witnesses, counsel, persons who have not previously consented to the adoption but are required to consent, and representatives of the agencies present to perform their official duties.

 (b) The papers and records relating to an adoption or a termination of parental rights under AS 25.23.180(c)(2) that are a part of the permanent record of a court are subject to inspection only upon consent of the court. The papers and records relating to an adoption or a termination of parental rights under AS 25.23.180(c)(2) on file with the department, an agency, or an individual are subject to inspection only with consent of all interested persons or by order of a court for good cause shown. Except as provided in this section, adoption records of the Bureau of Vital Statistics are subject to inspection under the provisions of AS 18.50.

 (c) Except as otherwise provided by law, or as authorized in writing by the adopted child, if 14 or more years of age, or by the adoptive parent, or upon order of the court for good cause shown, a person may not disclose the identity or address of an adoptive parent, an adopted child, a child who is the subject of a proceeding under AS 25.23.180(c)(2), or a biological parent whose parental rights have been terminated on grounds set out in AS 25.23.180(c)(2).

 (d) The court may order the disclosure of a natural parent’s identity or address only if
     (1) the court makes an express finding that the disclosure is required because of a medical necessity or other extraordinary circumstance; and

     (2) the natural parent unless the parent’s parental rights have been terminated on grounds set out in AS 25.23.180(c)(2), the child, and the adoptive parents are afforded proper notice and a hearing; the court may waive the hearing and notice requirement if it finds there is a medical necessity that poses an immediate risk to life.




Sec. 25.23.160. Recognition of foreign decree affecting adoption.
A decree of court terminating the relationship of parent and child or establishing the relationship by adoption issued under due process of law by a court of any other jurisdiction within or outside of the United States shall be recognized in this state and the rights and obligations of the parties as to matters within the jurisdiction of this state shall be determined as though the decree were issued by a court of this state.

Sec. 25.23.170. Applications for birth certificates.
Within 30 days after an adoption decree becomes final, the clerk of the court shall, if requested by the adoptive parents, prepare an application for a birth certificate in the name of the adopted person. Upon issuing a decree terminating parental rights on grounds set out in AS 25.23.180(c)(2) the court may order the preparation of an application for a birth certificate in the name of the child without reference to the parent whose parental rights have been terminated. The clerk of the court shall forward the application
     (1) for a person born in the United States, to the appropriate vital statistics office of the place, if known, where the adopted person was born and a copy of the decree to the department for statistical purposes; and

     (2) for a person born outside the United States to the state registrar of vital statistics.




Sec. 25.23.173. Indian child adoption reports.
After entering a final decree or order in an Indian child adoptive placement, the court shall send to the Secretary of the Interior a copy of the decree or order and other information required by 25 U.S.C. 1951 (sec. 301(a) of the Indian Child Welfare Act of 1978).

Sec. 25.23.175. Findings concerning persons born outside the United States.
In the case of the adoption of a person born outside the United States, if requested by the adoptive parents, the court shall make findings, based on evidence from the petitioner and other reliable state or federal sources, on the date and place of birth and parentage of the adopted person. The findings shall be certified by the court and included with the report of adoption filed with the state registrar of vital statistics under AS 18.50.210.

Sec. 25.23.180. Relinquishment and termination of parent and child relationships.
 (a) The rights of a parent with reference to a child, including parental right to control the child or to withhold consent to an adoption, may be relinquished and the relationship of parent and child terminated in or before an adoption proceeding as provided in this section.

 (b) All rights of a parent with reference to a child, including the right to receive notice of a hearing on a petition for adoption, may be relinquished and the relationship of parent and child terminated by a writing, signed by the parent, regardless of the age of the parent, a copy of which shall be given to the parent,
     (1) in the presence of a representative of an agency taking custody of the child, whether the agency is within or outside of the state or in the presence and with the approval of a court within or outside of this state in which the minor was present or in which the parent resided at the time it was signed, which relinquishment may be withdrawn within 10 days after it is signed or the child is born, whichever is later; and the relinquishment is invalid unless it states that the parent has this right of withdrawal; or

     (2) in any other situation if the petitioner has had custody of the minor for two years, but only if notice of the adoption proceeding has been given to the parent and the court finds, after considering the circumstances of the relinquishment and the long continued custody by the petitioner, that the best interest of the child requires the granting of adoption.

 (c) The relationship of parent and child may be terminated by a court order issued in connection with a proceeding
     (1) under this chapter or a proceeding under AS 47.10 on the grounds
          (A) specified in AS 47.10.080(o) or 47.10.088; or

          (B) that a parent who does not have custody is unreasonably withholding consent to adoption, contrary to the best interest of the minor child;

     (2) under this chapter, a proceeding under AS 47.10, or an independent proceeding on the grounds that the parent committed an act constituting sexual assault, sexual abuse of a minor, or incest under the laws of this state, or a comparable offense under the laws of the state where the act occurred, that resulted in conception of the child and that termination of the parental rights of the biological parent is in the best interests of the child.

 (d) For the purpose of an adoption proceeding under this chapter, a decree issued by a court of competent jurisdiction in this or another state terminating all rights of a parent with reference to a child or the relationship of parent and child dispenses with the required
     (1) consent by that parent to an adoption of that child; and

     (2) notice of a proceeding to that parent unless otherwise required by this section.

 (e) A petition for termination of the relationship of parent and child made in connection with an adoption proceeding or in an independent proceeding for the termination of parental rights on grounds set out in (c)(2) of this section may be made by
     (1) either parent if termination of the relationship is sought with respect to the other parent;

     (2) the petitioner for adoption, the guardian of the person, the legal custodian of the child, or the individual standing in parental relationship to the child;

     (3) an agency; or

     (4) another person having a legitimate interest in the matter.

 (f) Before the petition is heard, notice of the hearing on the petition and opportunity to be heard shall be given the parents of the child, the guardian of the person of the child, the person having legal custody of the child, and, in the discretion of the court, a person appointed to represent any party.

 (g) Notwithstanding the provisions of (b) of this section, a relinquishment of parental rights with respect to a child, executed under this section, may be withdrawn by the parent, and a decree of a court terminating the parent and child relationship on grounds set out in (c)(1) of this section may be vacated by the court upon motion of the parent, if the child is not on placement for adoption and the person having custody of the child consents in writing to the withdrawal or vacation of the decree.

 (h) The respondent to a petition filed for the termination of parental rights on grounds set out in (c)(2) of this section is entitled to representation in the proceedings by an attorney. If the respondent is financially unable to employ an attorney, the court shall appoint the office of public advocacy to represent the respondent in the proceedings.

 (i) Proceedings for the termination of parental rights on the grounds set out in (c)(2) of this section do not affect the rights of a victim of sexual assault, sexual abuse of a minor, or incest to obtain legal and equitable civil remedies for all injuries and damages arising out of the perpetrator’s conduct.

 (j) In a relinquishment of parental rights executed under (a) of this section, a parent may retain privileges with respect to the child, including the ability to have future contact, communication, and visitation with the child. A retained privilege must be stated in writing with specificity. Not less than 10 days after the relinquishment is signed, the court may enter an order terminating parental rights if the court finds that termination of parental rights under the terms of the agreement is in the child’s best interest. If a parent has retained one or more privileges, the court shall incorporate the retained privileges into the termination order with a recommendation that the retained privileges be incorporated in an adoption or legal guardianship decree.

 (k) A voluntary relinquishment may not be withdrawn and a termination order may not be vacated on the ground that a retained privilege has been withheld from the relinquishing parent or that the relinquishing parent has been unable, for any reason, to act on a retained privilege, except as provided in Rule 60(b), Alaska Rules of Civil Procedure.

 (l) After a termination order is entered, a person who has voluntarily relinquished parental rights under this section may request a review hearing, upon a showing of good cause, to seek enforcement or modification of or to vacate a privilege retained in the termination order. The court may modify, enforce, or vacate the retained privilege if the court finds, by clear and convincing evidence, that it is in the best interest of the child to do so.

 (m) After a termination order is entered and before the entry of an adoption or legal guardianship decree, a prospective adoptive parent or a guardian of a child who is the subject of an adoption decree may request, after providing notice as specified under this subsection, that the court decline to incorporate a privilege retained in a termination order and recommended for incorporation in an adoption or guardianship decree under (j) of this section. The request made under this subsection may only be considered by the court after providing at least 20 days’ notice by certified mail to the last known address of the person who has voluntarily relinquished parental rights to the child. The notice under this subsection must describe the request and explain that the recipient of the notice may submit a written statement under penalty of perjury to the court that the recipient either agrees with or opposes the request. The notice must also include the deadline for submitting the statement and the mailing address of the court. The court may decline to incorporate a retained privilege if the person who retained the privilege agrees with the request or if the court finds that it is in the child’s best interest.

 (n) A person who relinquished parental rights is entitled to the appointment of an attorney if a hearing is requested under (l) or (m) of this section to the same extent as if the parent’s rights had not been terminated in a child-in-need-of-aid proceeding.

 (o) A petition for termination of parental rights under (c)(2) of this section may be filed to initiate an independent proceeding not connected to a petition for adoption or a proceeding under AS 47.10.




Sec. 25.23.185. Records and information.
 (a) At the time a petition for adoption is filed with the court, the agency or individual placing the person for adoption, or the petitioner, shall file with the court, for release to the state registrar of vital statistics, the following information, or an explanation of its unavailability, on forms provided by the department:
     (1) the address of each parent named on the original birth certificate; and

     (2) background information required under AS 18.50.510.

 (b) Upon entry of a decree of adoption, the clerk of the court shall transmit to the Bureau of Vital Statistics the information provided under (a) of this section. The bureau shall attach the information to the original birth certificate of the adopted person.

 (c) A child adoption agency licensed under former AS 47.35 and a child placement agency licensed under AS 47.32 shall maintain records of the information required to be furnished to the court under this section or under regulations of the commissioner implementing this section. If a child adoption agency or child placement agency ceases to place persons for adoption, it shall transfer its records to the commissioner.




Sec. 25.23.190. Subsidy for hard-to-place child.
A hard-to-place child in the permanent custody of the department in a foster home for not less than one year may not be denied the opportunity for a permanent home if the achievement of this depends on continued subsidy by the state.

Sec. 25.23.200. Investigation of home for subsidized hard-to-place child.
Persons who are caring for a hard-to-place child on a foster parent basis and who have applied to adopt the hard-to-place child and to receive payments for the care and support of the hard-to-place child shall be evaluated as to their suitability as adoptive parents by means of an adoptive home study. Persons who are caring for a hard-to-place child in the state’s custody and who wish to be appointed legal guardians of the child under AS 13.26.132, and to receive payments for the care and support of the child, shall be evaluated as to their suitability as guardians by means of a guardianship study. A home study or guardianship study shall be made by the commissioner’s adoption staff or on the commissioner’s behalf by an authorized agency or individual that provides adoption services.

Sec. 25.23.210. Amount and duration of subsidy payments.
 (a) The department may adopt regulations to set the amount and length of time that a subsidy for a hard-to-place child may be granted.

 (b) A subsidy granted by the department under this section may be
     (1) paid for a specified length of time not to extend after the child’s 18th birthday; and

     (2) a deferred subsidy; in this paragraph, “deferred subsidy” means that no monetary reimbursement is paid to a family but other benefits are paid for the child.

 (c) A subsidy granted under this section may not
     (1) exceed the existing rate for foster care; or

     (2) be changed without the written request or consent of the person caring for the child.

 (d) The department shall review whether the amount of a subsidy granted for a child is appropriate on request of the person caring for the child.

 (e) Subsidies shall be paid from the same public funds and in the same manner as foster care payments.




Sec. 25.23.220. Annual reevaluation of subsidy. [Repealed, § 4 ch 31 SLA 2003.]
Sec. 25.23.230. Regulations.
The department shall adopt regulations necessary to implement the provisions of AS 25.23.185 — 25.23.240.

Sec. 25.23.240. Definitions.
In this chapter, unless the context otherwise requires,
     (1) “adult” means an individual who has reached the age of majority;

     (2) “agency” means any person certified, licensed, or otherwise specially empowered by law or regulation to place minors for adoption;

     (3) “child” means a son or daughter, whether by birth or by adoption;

     (4) “commissioner” means the commissioner of health and social services;

     (5) “court” means the superior court of this state, and, when the context requires, the court of another state empowered to grant petitions for adoption or guardianship or to terminate parental rights;

     (6) “department” means the Department of Health and Social Services;

     (7) “hard-to-place child” means a minor who is not likely to be adopted or to obtain a guardian by reason of physical or mental disability, emotional disturbance, recognized high risk of physical or mental disease, age, membership in a sibling group, racial or ethnic factors, or any combination of these conditions;

     (8) “minor” means a person who has not reached the age of majority;

     (9) “sexual abuse of a minor” means a sexual offense defined in AS 11.41.434, 11.41.436, 11.41.438, or 11.41.440;

     (10) “sexual assault” means a sexual offense defined in AS 11.41.410 — 11.41.427;

     (11) “stepparent” means the spouse of a natural parent of the child residing in the same household.




Article 1. Divorce and Annulment.

Chapter 24. Divorce and Dissolution of Marriage.

Sec. 25.24.010. Right of action for divorce.
A husband or wife may maintain an action against the other for divorce or to have the marriage declared void.

Sec. 25.24.020. Void marriages.
A marriage which is prohibited by law on account of consanguinity between the persons, or a subsequent marriage contracted by a person during the life of a former husband or wife which marriage has not been annulled or dissolved is void.

Sec. 25.24.030. Voidable marriages.
A marriage may be declared void for any of the following causes existing at the time of the marriage:
     (1) that the party in whose behalf it is sought to have the marriage declared void was under the age of legal consent, and the marriage was contracted without the consent of the parents, guardian, or person having charge of that party, unless, after attaining the age of consent, the party for any time freely cohabited with the other as husband and wife;

     (2) that either party was of unsound mind, unless that party, after coming to reason, freely cohabited with the other as husband and wife;

     (3) that the consent of either party was obtained by fraud, unless that party afterwards, with full knowledge of the facts constituting the fraud, freely cohabited with the other as husband and wife;

     (4) that the consent of either party was obtained by force, unless that party afterwards freely cohabited with the other as husband and wife;

     (5) failure to consummate the marriage at the time of the marriage and continuing at the commencement of the action.




Sec. 25.24.040. Action to declare marriage valid.
When either the husband or wife claims or pretends that the marriage is void or voidable, the other spouse may bring an action to have the marriage declared valid. The court may determine if the marriage is void from the beginning or from the time of the judgment or that it is valid.

Sec. 25.24.050. Grounds for divorce.
A divorce may be granted for any of the following grounds:
     (1) failure to consummate the marriage at the time of the marriage and continuing at the commencement of the action;

     (2) adultery;

     (3) conviction of a felony;

     (4) wilful desertion for a period of one year;

     (5) either
          (A) cruel and inhuman treatment calculated to impair health or endanger life;

          (B) personal indignities rendering life burdensome; or

          (C) incompatibility of temperament;

     (6) habitual gross drunkenness contracted since marriage and continuing for one year prior to the commencement of the action;

     (7) [Repealed, § 68 ch 127 SLA 1974.]
     (8) incurable mental illness when the spouse has been confined to an institution for a period of at least 18 months immediately preceding the commencement of the action; the status as to the support and maintenance of the mentally ill person is not altered in any way by the granting of the divorce;

     (9) addiction of either party, subsequent to the marriage, to the habitual use of opium, morphine, cocaine, or a similar drug.




Sec. 25.24.060. Mediation.
 (a) Except as provided in (f) and (g) of this section, at any time within 30 days after a complaint or cross-complaint in a divorce action is filed, a party to the action may file a motion with the court requesting mediation, for the purpose of achieving a mutually agreeable settlement in termination of the marriage. When a party moves for settlement mediation, the other party shall answer the motion on the record, and the judge may order mediation. When no request for mediation is made, the court may at any time order the parties to submit to mediation if it determines that mediation may result in a more satisfactory settlement between the parties.

 (b) The court appoints the mediator. The court may appoint any person the court finds suitable to act as mediator. Each party shall have the right once to challenge peremptorily any mediator appointed.

 (c) Mediation shall be conducted informally as a conference or series of conferences. The parties to the action and a court-appointed representative of any unmarried children of the marriage under the age of 19 whose interests may be affected shall attend. Counsel for the parties may attend all such conferences.

 (d) After the first conference, either party may withdraw, or the mediator may terminate mediation if the mediator determines that mediation efforts are unsuccessful. Upon withdrawal by either party or termination by the mediator, the mediator shall notify the court that mediation efforts have failed, and the divorce action shall proceed in the usual manner.

 (e) Upon submission of the parties to mediation under this section, divorce proceedings then pending shall be stayed for a period of 30 days or until the court is notified that mediation efforts have failed. All court orders made under AS 25.24.140 remain in effect during the period of mediation.

 (f) The court may not order or refer parties to mediation in a divorce proceeding if a protective order issued or filed under AS 18.66.100 — 18.66.180 is in effect. The court may not order or refer parties to mediation if a party objects on the grounds that domestic violence has occurred between the parties unless the court finds that the conditions of (g)(1) — (3) of this section are met. If the court proposes or suggests mediation under this subsection,
     (1) mediation may not occur unless the victim of the alleged domestic violence agrees to the mediation; and

     (2) the court shall advise the parties that each party has the right to not agree to mediation and that the decision of each party will not bias other decisions of the court.

 (g) A mediator who receives a referral or order from a court to conduct mediation under (a) of this section shall evaluate whether domestic violence has occurred between the parties. A mediator may not engage in mediation when either party has committed a crime involving domestic violence unless
     (1) mediation is requested by the victim of the alleged domestic violence, or proposed by the court and agreed to by the victim;

     (2) mediation is provided by a mediator who is trained in domestic violence in a manner that protects the safety of the victim and any household member, taking into account the results of an assessment of the potential danger posed by the perpetrator and the risk of harm to the victim; and

     (3) the victim is permitted to have in attendance a person of the victim’s choice, including an attorney.




Sec. 25.24.070. Confession of adultery.
In an action for divorce on the ground of adultery, a confession of adultery is not alone sufficient to justify a judgment of divorce.

Sec. 25.24.080. Residence requirements for action to declare marriage void.
When a marriage has been solemnized and the plaintiff is a resident of the state, an action to declare the marriage void may be brought at any time.

Sec. 25.24.090. Use of spouse’s residence.
Where one spouse is plaintiff in an action for divorce or to declare void a marriage that was not solemnized in the state, the residence of the other spouse in this state inures to the plaintiff’s benefit and the action may be instituted if the other spouse is at the time of its commencement qualified as to residence to institute a similar action.

Sec. 25.24.100. [Renumbered as AS 25.24.900.]
Sec. 25.24.110. Separate domicile or residence.
In an action for divorce, a spouse may acquire a separate residence or domicile from that of the other spouse without reference among other factors to misconduct or consent of the other spouse.

Sec. 25.24.120. Defenses to adultery.
In a divorce action for adultery, the following defenses may be made:
     (1) procurement;

     (2) connivance;

     (3) the act has been expressly forgiven or impliedly forgiven by the voluntary cohabitation of the parties after knowledge of the act;

     (4) the plaintiff is also guilty of adultery and without procurement or connivance of the defendant and not forgiven as provided in the defenses to adultery; or

     (5) the action has not been commenced within two years after the discovery of the act by the plaintiff.




Sec. 25.24.130. Defenses to other divorce grounds.
When the divorce action is for any of the grounds provided in AS 25.24.050(4)-(6), the defense of procurement or that the defendant has been expressly forgiven may be made. When the divorce action is for the ground provided in AS 25.24.050(3), the defense of procurement or that the defendant has been expressly forgiven or that the action was not brought within two years after conviction may be made.

Sec. 25.24.140. Orders during action.
 (a) During the pendency of the action, a spouse may, upon application and in appropriate circumstances, be awarded expenses, including
     (1) attorney fees and costs that reasonably approximate the actual fees and costs required to prosecute or defend the action; in applying this paragraph, the court shall take appropriate steps to ensure that the award of attorney fees does not contribute to an unnecessary escalation in the litigation;

     (2) reasonable spousal maintenance, including medical expenses; and

     (3) reasonable support for minor children in the care of the spouse and reasonable support for unmarried 18-year-old children of the marriage who are actively pursuing a high school diploma or an equivalent level of technical or vocational training and living as dependents with the spouse or designee of the spouse, if there is a legal obligation of the other spouse to provide support.

 (b) During the pendency of the action, upon application, a spouse is entitled to necessary protective orders, including orders
     (1) providing for the freedom of each spouse from the control of the other spouse;

     (2) for protection under AS 18.66.100 — 18.66.180;

     (3) directing one spouse to vacate the marital residence or the home of the other spouse;

     (4) restraining a spouse from communicating directly or indirectly with the other spouse;

     (5) restraining a spouse from entering a propelled vehicle in the possession of or occupied by the other spouse; and

     (6) prohibiting a spouse from disposing of the property of either spouse or marital property without the permission of the other spouse or a court order.

 (c) Except as provided in (d) and (e) of this section, after a hearing, if both parties agree, the court may also order that the parties engage in personal or family counseling or mediation. In the order, the court shall provide for the payment of the costs of the counseling or mediation.

 (d) The court may not order or refer parties to mediation or family counseling under (c) of this section if a protective order issued or filed under AS 18.66.100 — 18.66.180 is in effect. The court may not order or refer parties to mediation or family counseling if a party objects on the grounds that domestic violence has occurred between the parties unless the court finds that the conditions of (e)(1) — (3) of this section are met. If the court proposes or suggests mediation under this subsection,
     (1) mediation may not occur unless the victim of the alleged domestic violence agrees to the mediation; and

     (2) the court shall advise the parties that each party has the right to not agree to mediation and that the decision of each party will not bias other decisions by the court.

 (e) A mediator or family counselor who receives a referral or order from a court to conduct mediation under (c) of this section shall evaluate whether domestic violence has occurred between the parties. A mediator or family counselor may not engage in mediation when either party has committed a crime involving domestic violence unless
     (1) mediation or family counseling is requested by the victim of the alleged domestic violence, or proposed by the court and agreed to by the victim;

     (2) mediation or family counseling is provided by a mediator or family counselor who is trained in domestic violence in a manner that protects the safety of the victim and any household member, taking into account the results of an assessment of the potential danger posed by the perpetrator and the risk of harm to the victim; and

     (3) the victim is permitted to have in attendance a person of the victim’s choice, including an attorney.




Sec. 25.24.150. Judgments for custody; supervised visitation.
 (a) In an action for divorce or for legal separation, for placement of a child when one or both parents have died, or as part of a child-in-need-of-aid proceeding for a child in state custody under AS 47.10, the court may, if it has jurisdiction under AS 25.30.300 — 25.30.320, and is an appropriate forum under AS 25.30.350 and 25.30.360, during the pendency of the action, or at the final hearing or at any time thereafter during the minority of a child of the marriage, make, modify, or vacate an order for the custody of or visitation with the minor child that may seem necessary or proper, including an order that provides for visitation by a grandparent or other person if that is in the best interests of the child. The court shall hear custody proceedings related to a child in state custody under AS 47.10 as part of the child-in-need-of-aid proceedings, as provided under AS 47.10.113, unless notice is provided to all parties to the child-in-need-of-aid proceedings and no party objects to hearing the custody proceedings in another appropriate forum.

 (b) If a guardian ad litem for a child is appointed, the appointment shall be made under the terms of AS 25.24.310(c).

 (c) The court shall determine custody in accordance with the best interests of the child under AS 25.20.060 — 25.20.130. In determining the best interests of the child the court shall consider
     (1) the physical, emotional, mental, religious, and social needs of the child;

     (2) the capability and desire of each parent to meet these needs;

     (3) the child’s preference if the child is of sufficient age and capacity to form a preference;

     (4) the love and affection existing between the child and each parent;

     (5) the length of time the child has lived in a stable, satisfactory environment and the desirability of maintaining continuity;

     (6) the willingness and ability of each parent to facilitate and encourage a close and continuing relationship between the other parent and the child, except that the court may not consider this willingness and ability if one parent shows that the other parent has sexually assaulted or engaged in domestic violence against the parent or a child, and that a continuing relationship with the other parent will endanger the health or safety of either the parent or the child;

     (7) any evidence of domestic violence, child abuse, or child neglect in the proposed custodial household or a history of violence between the parents;

     (8) evidence that substance abuse by either parent or other members of the household directly affects the emotional or physical well-being of the child;

     (9) other factors that the court considers pertinent.

 (d) In awarding custody the court may consider only those facts that directly affect the well-being of the child.

 (e) Notwithstanding the provisions of (d) of this section, in awarding custody the court shall comply with the provisions of 25 U.S.C. 1901 — 1963 (P.L. 95-608, the Indian Child Welfare Act of 1978).

 (f) If the issue of child custody is before the court at the time it issues a judgment under AS 25.24.160, the court shall concurrently issue a judgment for custody under this section unless, subject to AS 25.24.155, the court delays the custody decision for a later time.

 (g) There is a rebuttable presumption that a parent who has a history of perpetrating domestic violence against the other parent, a child, or a domestic living partner may not be awarded sole legal custody, sole physical custody, joint legal custody, or joint physical custody of a child.

 (h) A parent has a history of perpetrating domestic violence under (g) of this section if the court finds that, during one incident of domestic violence, the parent caused serious physical injury or the court finds that the parent has engaged in more than one incident of domestic violence. The presumption may be overcome by a preponderance of the evidence that the perpetrating parent has successfully completed an intervention program for batterers, where reasonably available, that the parent does not engage in substance abuse, and that the best interests of the child require that parent’s participation as a custodial parent because the other parent is absent, suffers from a diagnosed mental illness that affects parenting abilities, or engages in substance abuse that affects parenting abilities, or because of other circumstances that affect the best interests of the child.

 (i) If the court finds that both parents have a history of perpetrating domestic violence under (g) of this section, the court shall either
     (1) award sole legal and physical custody to the parent who is less likely to continue to perpetrate the violence and require that the custodial parent complete a treatment program; or

     (2) if necessary to protect the welfare of the child, award sole legal or physical custody, or both, to a suitable third person if the person would not allow access to a violent parent except as ordered by the court.

 (j) If the court finds that a parent has a history of perpetrating domestic violence under (g) of this section, the court shall allow only supervised visitation by that parent with the child, conditioned on that parent’s participating in and successfully completing an intervention program for batterers, and a parenting education program, where reasonably available, except that the court may allow unsupervised visitation if it is shown by a preponderance of the evidence that the violent parent has completed a substance abuse treatment program if the court considers it appropriate, is not abusing alcohol or psychoactive drugs, does not pose a danger of mental or physical harm to the child, and unsupervised visitation is in the child’s best interests.

 (k) The fact that an abused parent suffers from the effects of the abuse does not constitute a basis for denying custody to the abused parent unless the court finds that the effects of the domestic violence are so severe that they render the parent unable to safely parent the child.

 (l) Except as provided in AS 25.20.095 and 25.20.110, a court may not consider a parent’s activation to military service and deployment in determining the best interest of the child under (c) of this section. In this subsection, “deployment” has the meaning given in AS 25.20.095.




Sec. 25.24.152. Children as dependents for tax purposes.
 (a) In an action for divorce, dissolution, or to declare a marriage void, the court may not unconditionally grant to a noncustodial parent the right to claim a child as a dependent under federal income tax laws. The court may grant a noncustodial parent the right to claim a child as a dependent under federal tax laws for a tax year if the noncustodial parent satisfies the requirements of federal law and was not in arrears at the end of the tax year in an amount more than four times the monthly obligation under
     (1) a support order applicable to the child in cases where a payment schedule has not been established for payment of continuing support and accumulated arrears under the support order; or

     (2) a payment schedule if a payment schedule has been established for payment of continuing support and accumulated arrears under a support order applicable to the child.

 (b) In this section, “noncustodial parent” means the parent who has actual physical custody of the child for less time than the other parent.




Sec. 25.24.155. Reservation of issues.
 (a) The court may not delay or reserve a custody decision under AS 25.24.150(f) or an issue of property division under AS 25.24.160(c) unless
     (1) each party, and the guardian ad litem if one has been appointed under AS 25.24.310, expressly agrees on the record to the delay or reservation; or

     (2) a party who moves for an order of delay or reservation shows good cause and the court finds that the interests of a party opposing the motion will not be jeopardized by the delay or reservation.

 (b) The court may not grant a motion under (a)(2) of this section if the court finds that granting the motion would
     (1) put the opposing party’s interests substantially at risk due to the death of the other party before a final disposition of the marital property;

     (2) diminish the ability of the party opposing the motion to protect the value of assets not in the party’s control;

     (3) not be in the best interests of each minor child whose custody would remain unresolved if the motion were granted;

     (4) have adverse tax consequences for the opposing party; or

     (5) have adverse consequences on the opposing party’s ability to maintain existing health insurance coverage.




Sec. 25.24.160. Judgment.
 (a) In a judgment in an action for divorce or action declaring a marriage void or at any time after judgment, the court may provide
     (1) for the payment by either or both parties of an amount of money or goods, in gross or installments that may include cost-of-living adjustments, as may be just and proper for the parties to contribute toward the nurture and education of their children, and the court may order the parties to arrange with their employers for an automatic payroll deduction each month or each pay period, if the period is other than monthly, of the amount of the installment; if the employer agrees, the installment shall be forwarded by the employer to the clerk of the superior court that entered the judgment or to the court trustee, and the amount of the installment is exempt from execution;

     (2) for the recovery by one party from the other of an amount of money for maintenance, for a limited or indefinite period of time, in gross or in installments, as may be just and necessary without regard to which of the parties is in fault; an award of maintenance must fairly allocate the economic effect of divorce by being based on a consideration of the following factors:
          (A) the length of the marriage and station in life of the parties during the marriage;

          (B) the age and health of the parties;

          (C) the earning capacity of the parties, including their educational backgrounds, training, employment skills, work experiences, length of absence from the job market, and custodial responsibilities for children during the marriage;

          (D) the financial condition of the parties, including the availability and cost of health insurance;

          (E) the conduct of the parties, including whether there has been unreasonable depletion of marital assets;

          (F) the division of property under (4) of this subsection; and

          (G) other factors the court determines to be relevant in each individual case;

     (3) for the delivery to either party of that party’s personal property in the possession or control of the other party at the time of giving the judgment;

     (4) for the division between the parties of their property, including retirement benefits, whether joint or separate, acquired only during marriage, in a just manner and without regard to which of the parties is in fault; however, the court, in making the division, may invade the property, including retirement benefits, of either spouse acquired before marriage when the balancing of the equities between the parties requires it; and to accomplish this end the judgment may require that one or both of the parties assign, deliver, or convey any of their real or personal property, including retirement benefits, to the other party; the division of property must fairly allocate the economic effect of divorce by being based on consideration of the following factors:
          (A) the length of the marriage and station in life of the parties during the marriage;

          (B) the age and health of the parties;

          (C) the earning capacity of the parties, including their educational backgrounds, training, employment skills, work experiences, length of absence from the job market, and custodial responsibilities for children during the marriage;

          (D) the financial condition of the parties, including the availability and cost of health insurance;

          (E) the conduct of the parties, including whether there has been unreasonable depletion of marital assets;

          (F) the desirability of awarding the family home, or the right to live in it for a reasonable period of time, to the party who has primary physical custody of children;

          (G) the circumstances and necessities of each party;

          (H) the time and manner of acquisition of the property in question; and

          (I) the income-producing capacity of the property and the value of the property at the time of division;

     (5) if an animal is owned, for the ownership or joint ownership of the animal, taking into consideration the well-being of the animal.

 (b) If a judgment under this section distributes benefits to an alternate payee under AS 14.25, AS 21.51.120(a), AS 21.54.020(c), 21.54.050(c), AS 22.25, AS 26.05.222 — 26.05.226, or AS 39.35, the judgment must meet the requirements of a qualified domestic relations order under the definition of that phrase that is applicable to those provisions.

 (c) Notwithstanding (a) of this section, if one of the parties to an action for divorce or action declaring a marriage void expressly submits to the court the issue of property division and has not withdrawn that issue from the court before judgment, the court shall provide in the judgment for the division of property and may not reserve the issue of property division for a later time unless the conditions of AS 25.24.155 have been met.

 (d) For each judgment issued under this section, the court shall include in the records relating to the matter the social security numbers, if ascertainable, of the following persons:
     (1) each party to the action;

     (2) each child whose rights are addressed in the judgment.

 (e) When distributing property identified as community property under a community property agreement or trust under AS 34.77, unless the parties have provided in the agreement or trust for another disposition of the community property, the court shall make such disposition of the community property as shall appear just and equitable after considering all relevant factors, including
     (1) the nature and extent of the community property;

     (2) the nature and extent of the separate property;

     (3) the duration of the marriage; and

     (4) the economic circumstances of each spouse at the time the division of property is to become effective, including the desirability of awarding the family home or right to live in the family home for reasonable periods to a spouse with whom the children reside the majority of the time.




Sec. 25.24.165. Change of name in divorce or annulment.
 (a) In a judgment in an action for divorce or action declaring a marriage void, the court may change the name of either of the parties.

 (b) If a party seeks a change of name to a name other than a prior name, the court shall set a date for hearing not less than 40 days after filing of the action. Notice of the application for a change of name to a name other than a prior name and the date of the hearing shall be published once each week for four consecutive calendar weeks before the hearing in a newspaper of general circulation in the judicial district. The court may also require posting of the notice at locations it considers appropriate. The court shall by judgment authorize the party to assume the new name not less than 30 days after issuance of the judgment, if the court is satisfied that no reasonable objection exists to assumption of the new name. Within 10 days after issuance of the judgment the party shall publish notice of the approval of the name change in a newspaper of general circulation in the judicial district. The court may also require the posting of a copy of the judgment.




Sec. 25.24.170. Modification of judgment.
 (a) Subject to AS 25.20.110, any time after judgment the court, upon the motion of either party, may set aside, alter, or modify so much of the judgment as may provide for alimony, for the appointment of trustees for the care and custody of the minor children or for their nurture and education, for the care, nurture, and education of unmarried 18-year-old children of the marriage while they are actively pursuing a high school diploma or an equivalent level of technical or vocational training and living as dependents with a parent, guardian, or designee of the parent or guardian, or for the maintenance of either party to the action.

 (b) For the purposes of a motion to modify or terminate child support, the adoption or enactment of guidelines or a significant amendment to guidelines for determining support is a material change in circumstances if the guidelines are relevant to the motion. As necessary to comply with 42 U.S.C. 666, a periodic modification of child support may be made without a showing of a material change in circumstances if the child support order being modified on the periodic basis has not been modified or adjusted during the three years preceding the periodic modification.




Sec. 25.24.180. Effect of divorce.
The effect of a judgment decreeing a divorce is to restore the parties to the state of unmarried persons.

Article 2. Dissolution of Marriage.
Sec. 25.24.200. Dissolution of marriage.
 (a) A husband and wife together may petition the superior court for the dissolution of their marriage under AS 25.24.200 — 25.24.260 if the following conditions exist at the time of filing the petition:
     (1) incompatibility of temperament has caused the irremediable breakdown of the marriage;

     (2) if there are unmarried children of the marriage under the age of 19 or the wife is pregnant, and the spouses have agreed on which spouse or third party is to be awarded custody of each minor child of the marriage and the extent of visitation, including visitation by grandparents and other persons if in the child’s best interests, and support to be provided on the children’s behalf, whether the payments are to be made through the child support services agency, and the tax consequences of that agreement;

     (3) the spouses have agreed as to the distribution of all real and personal property that is jointly owned or community property under AS 34.77, including retirement benefits and the payment of spousal maintenance, if any, and the tax consequences resulting from these payments; the agreement must be fair and just and take into consideration the factors listed in AS 25.24.160(a)(2) and (4) so that the economic effect of dissolution is fairly allocated; and

     (4) the spouses have agreed as to the payment of all unpaid obligations incurred by either or both of them and as to payment of obligations incurred jointly in the future.

 (b) A husband or wife may separately petition for dissolution of their marriage under AS 25.24.200 — 25.24.260 if the following conditions exist at the time of filing the petition:
     (1) incompatibility of temperament, as evidenced by extended absence or otherwise, has caused the irremediable breakdown of the marriage;

     (2) the petitioning spouse has been unable to ascertain the other spouse’s position in regard to the dissolution of their marriage and in regard to the fair and just division of property, including retirement benefits, spousal maintenance, payment of debts, and custody, support and visitation because the whereabouts of the other spouse is unknown to the petitioning spouse after reasonable efforts have been made to locate the absent spouse; and

     (3) the other spouse cannot be personally served with process inside or outside the state.

 (c) Except as provided in AS 25.24.220(i), a spouse who has been personally served with a copy of a petition filed under (a) of this section may execute an appearance, waiver of time to answer, and waiver of notice of hearing. The appearance and waivers must include an acknowledgment signed before an officer authorized to administer an oath or affirmation that the spouse being served has read the petition; assents to the terms relating to custody of the children, child support, visitation, spousal maintenance taking into consideration the factors listed in AS 25.24.160(a)(2), and tax consequences, division of property, including retirement benefits and taking into consideration the factors listed in AS 25.24.160(a)(4), ownership of animals, taking into consideration the well-being of the animals, and allocation of debts; agrees that the conditions otherwise required by (a) of this section exist; agrees that the petition constitutes the entire agreement between the parties; understands fully the nature and consequences of the action; and is not signing the appearance and waivers under duress or coercion.

 (d) The action created under this section is separate from the action created by AS 25.24.010. The procedures prescribed by AS 25.24.200 — 25.24.260 do not apply to an action brought under AS 25.24.010, nor do procedures prescribed under AS 25.24.010 — 25.24.180 apply to an action filed under this section, except as specifically provided.

 (e) Spousal maintenance and a division of property must fairly allocate the economic effect of dissolution and take into consideration the factors listed in AS 25.24.160(a)(2) and (4).

 (f) A petition filed under (a) or (b) of this section may, if an animal is owned by a husband and wife together, provide for the ownership or joint ownership of the animal. The ownership or joint ownership of an animal provided for in a petition under (a) or (b) of this section must take into consideration the well-being of the animal.




Sec. 25.24.210. Petition for dissolution.
 (a) The caption in a petition for dissolution of marriage under AS 25.24.200 — 25.24.260 shall be styled substantially “In the Matter of the Dissolution of the Marriage of ………….. and …………..”

 (b) The petition shall be filed with the superior court and shall either
     (1) recite that the conditions enumerated under AS 25.24.200(a) exist and shall be signed and verified by both of the petitioners or by one petitioner, if that petitioner personally serves the petition on the other spouse in accordance with the Alaska Rules of Civil Procedure in anticipation that the spouse will comply with AS 25.24.200(c); or

     (2) recite that the conditions enumerated under AS 25.24.200(b) exist and be signed and verified by one of the petitioners.

 (c) The petition shall state that the spouse or spouses executing the petition consent to the jurisdiction of the court.

 (d) The petition shall request that the marriage be dissolved and that the name of a spouse be changed, if desired by that spouse.

 (e) If the petition is filed by both spouses under AS 25.24.200(a), the petition must state in detail the terms of the agreement between the spouses concerning the custody of children, child support in terms of periodic payments and in terms of health care expenses, visitation, spousal maintenance and tax consequences, if any, and fair and just division of property, including retirement benefits. A petition filed by both spouses under AS 25.24.200(a) may provide for the ownership or joint ownership of an animal, taking into consideration the well-being of the animal. Agreements on spousal maintenance and property division must fairly allocate the economic effect of dissolution and take into consideration the factors listed in AS 25.24.160(a)(2) and (4). In addition, the petition must state
     (1) the respective occupations of the petitioners;

     (2) the income, assets, and liabilities of the respective petitioners at the time of filing the petition;

     (3) the date and place of the marriage;

     (4) the name, date of birth, and current marital, educational, and custodial status of each child born of the marriage or adopted by the petitioners who is under the age of 19;

     (5) whether the wife is pregnant;

     (6) whether either petitioner requires medical care or treatment;

     (7) whether any of the following has been issued or filed during the marriage by or regarding either spouse as defendant, participant, or respondent:
          (A) a criminal charge of a crime involving domestic violence;

          (B) a protective order under AS 18.66.100 – 18.66.180;

          (C) injunctive relief under former AS 25.35.010 or 25.35.020; or

          (D) a protective order issued in another jurisdiction and recognized in this state under AS 18.66.140;

     (8) whether either petitioner has received the advice of legal counsel regarding a divorce or dissolution;

     (9) other facts and circumstances that the petitioners believe should be considered;

     (10) that the petition constitutes the entire agreement between the petitioners; and

     (11) any other relief sought by the petitioners.

 (f) A petition filed under this section must include or be accompanied by a record of the social security numbers, if ascertainable, of the following persons:
     (1) both spouses to the marriage being dissolved;

     (2) each child whose rights are being addressed in the petition for dissolution.




Sec. 25.24.220. Hearing.
 (a) After a petition for dissolution is filed under the provisions of AS 25.24.210, a hearing shall be scheduled in accordance with the Alaska Rules of Civil Procedure.

 (b) Except as provided in (i) of this section, if the petition is filed by both spouses under AS 25.24.200(a), both spouses shall attend the hearing personally and not through counsel. However, if the petition is not subject to (i) of this section, a spouse who complies with AS 25.24.200(c) is not required to attend the hearing. Either spouse may have counsel at the hearing.

 (c) If the petition is filed by one spouse under AS 25.24.200(b), that spouse shall submit proof of diligent inquiry as to the whereabouts of the absent spouse and provide notice by publication, posting, or other means as ordered by the court under the Alaska Rules of Civil Procedure.

 (d) If the petition is filed by both spouses under AS 25.24.200(a), the court shall examine the petitioners or petitioner present and consider whether
     (1) the spouses fully understand the nature and consequences of their action;

     (2) the written agreements between the spouses concerning child custody, child support, and visitation are just as between the spouses and in the best interests of the children of the marriage; in determining whether the parents’ agreement on visitation is in the best interests of the children under this paragraph, the court shall also consider whether the agreement should include visitation by grandparents and other persons;

     (3) the written agreements between the spouses relating to the division of property, including retirement benefits, spousal maintenance, and the allocation of obligations are just; the spousal maintenance and division of property must fairly allocate the economic effect of dissolution and take into consideration the factors listed in AS 25.24.160(a)(2) and (4);

     (4) the written agreements constitute the entire agreement between the parties;

     (5) the conditions in AS 25.24.200(a) have been met; and

     (6) the written agreements between the spouses concerning ownership or joint ownership of an animal take into consideration the well-being of the animal.

 (e) If the petition is filed by one spouse under AS 25.24.200(b), the court shall examine the petitioner and consider whether the petitioner fully understands the nature and consequences of the action and whether the conditions in AS 25.24.200(b) have been met.

 (f) The court may appoint a guardian ad litem to represent the best interests of the child. Appointment of a guardian ad litem or attorney for the child shall be made under the terms of AS 25.24.310.

 (g) The court may amend the written agreements between the spouses relating to child custody, child support, visitation, division of the property, including retirement benefits, spousal maintenance, ownership or joint ownership of an animal, taking into consideration the well-being of the animal, and allocation of obligations, but only if both petitioners concur in the amendment in writing or on the record.

 (h) In its examination of a petitioner under (d) of this section, the court shall use a heightened level of scrutiny of agreements if
     (1) one party is represented by counsel and the other is not;

     (2) there is evidence that a party committed a crime involving domestic violence during the marriage or if any of the following has been issued or filed during the marriage by or regarding either spouse as defendant, participant, or respondent:
          (A) a criminal charge of a crime involving domestic violence;

          (B) a protective order under AS 18.66.100 – 18.66.180;

          (C) injunctive relief under former AS 25.35.010 or 25.35.020; or

          (D) a protective order issued in another jurisdiction and recognized in this state under AS 18.66.140;

     (3) there is a minor child of the marriage; or

     (4) there is a patently inequitable division of the marital estate.

 (i) If the court finds that a higher level of scrutiny is required by (h) of this section, the court shall examine the written agreements between the spouses to determine that they are just, that they constitute the entire agreement between the parties, and that the agreements concerning child custody, child support, and visitation are in the best interest of the children of the marriage, if any. The court shall require the presence of both spouses at a hearing for this purpose unless the court finds on the record that it would constitute a significant hardship on one of the spouses to appear and that a just agreement has been reached. If one of the spouses cannot attend the hearing because it would constitute a significant hardship, the court may require that spouse to be available by telephone to answer questions, at that spouse’s expense.




Sec. 25.24.230. Judgment.
 (a) If the petition is filed under AS 25.24.200(a), and is not subject to AS 25.24.220(h), the court may grant the spouses a final decree of dissolution and shall order other relief as provided in this section if the court, upon consideration of the information contained in the petition and the testimony of the spouse or spouses at the hearing, finds that
     (1) the spouses understand fully the nature and consequences of their action;

     (2) the written agreements between the spouses concerning spousal maintenance and tax consequences, if any, division of property, including retirement benefits, and allocation of obligations are fair and just and constitute the entire agreement between the parties;

     (3) the spousal maintenance and division of property fairly allocate the economic effect of dissolution and take into consideration the factors listed in AS 25.24.160(a)(2) and (4);

     (4) each spouse entered into the agreement voluntarily and free from the coercion of another person;

     (5) the conditions in AS 25.24.200(a) have been met; and

     (6) the written agreements between the spouses concerning ownership or joint ownership of an animal take into consideration the well-being of the animal.

 (b) If the petition is filed under AS 25.24.200(a) and is subject to AS 25.24.220(h), the court may grant the spouses a final decree of dissolution and shall order other relief as provided in this section if the court, upon consideration of the information contained in the petition and the testimony of the spouse or spouses at the hearing, finds that
     (1) the spouses understand fully the nature and consequences of their action;

     (2) the written agreements between the spouses concerning child custody, child support, and visitation are in the best interest of the children of the marriage, constitute the entire agreement of the parties on child custody, child support, and visitation and, as between the spouses, are just;

     (3) the written agreements between the spouses concerning spousal maintenance and tax consequences, if any, division of property, including retirement benefits, and allocation of obligations are just and constitute the entire agreement between the parties;

     (4) the spousal maintenance and division of property fairly allocate the economic effect of dissolution and take into consideration the factors listed in AS 25.24.160(a)(2) and (4);

     (5) each spouse entered the agreement voluntarily and free from the coercion of another person; and

     (6) the conditions in AS 25.24.200(a) have been met.

 (c) If the petition is filed by one spouse under AS 25.24.200(b), the court may grant the spouse a final decree of dissolution and change the petitioner’s name, if so requested, if the court, upon consideration of affidavits supplied by the spouse and the testimony of the spouse at the hearing, finds that
     (1) the spouse present at the hearing understands fully the nature and consequences of the action;

     (2) the conditions in AS 25.24.200(b) have been met; and

     (3) the requirements of AS 25.24.165(b) have been satisfied, if a change of name is requested.

 (d) The court shall dismiss a petition or continue action on a petition filed under AS 25.24.200 — 25.24.260 before findings are made if
     (1) a representative of the unmarried children who are under the age of 19 objects to a term of an agreement between the spouses;

     (2) either of the spouses withdraws from an agreement required under AS 25.24.200(a); or

     (3) the petition alleges that the conditions in AS 25.24.200(b) exist, but the whereabouts of the absent spouse becomes known to the other spouse or the court before findings are made.

 (e) The court shall deny the relief sought in a petition filed under AS 25.24.200 — 25.24.260 if the court does not make the findings required under (a) — (c) of this section.

 (f) If the petition is filed by both spouses under AS 25.24.200(a), the court shall change either spouse’s name, if the spouse seeking a change of name to a name other than a prior name complies with AS 25.24.165(b), and shall fully and specifically set out in the decree the written agreements of the spouses and shall order the performance of those written agreements. The court shall also state, in the decree, whether child support payments are to be made through the child support services agency. If the petition is filed by one spouse under AS 25.24.200(b), the decree must state that it does not bar future action on the issues not resolved in the decree.

 (g) Notwithstanding other provisions of AS 25.24.200 — 25.24.260, the court may not award to one spouse real or personal property acquired by the other spouse before the date of the marriage, unless the spouses expressly agree otherwise or the court determines that the property should be made available, by sale or other conveyance, to ensure that the best interests of the children are provided for. If the court determines that the best interests of the children require an award of premarital property, but the spouses do not agree, the court shall dismiss or continue the action.

 (h) If a judgment under this section distributes benefits to an alternate payee under AS 14.25, AS 21.51.120(a), AS 21.54.020(c), 21.54.050(c), AS 22.25, AS 26.05.222 — 26.05.226, or AS 39.35, the judgment must meet the requirements of a qualified domestic relations order under the definition of that phrase that is applicable to those provisions.

 (i) For each judgment issued under this section, the court shall include in the records relating to the matter the social security numbers, if ascertainable, of the following persons:
     (1) each party to the dissolution of marriage;

     (2) each child whose rights are addressed in the judgment.




Sec. 25.24.232. Children as dependents for tax purposes.
 (a) Notwithstanding other provisions of AS 25.24.200 — 25.24.260, the court may not grant a final decree of dissolution that incorporates an agreement between the parties if the agreement unconditionally entitles a noncustodial parent to claim a child as a dependent under federal income tax laws. The court may incorporate into the decree of dissolution an agreement between the parties that entitles a noncustodial parent to claim a child as a dependent under federal tax laws for a tax year if the noncustodial parent satisfies the requirements of federal law and was not in arrears at the end of the tax year in an amount more than four times the monthly obligation under
     (1) a support order applicable to the child in cases where a payment schedule has not been established for payment of continuing support and accumulated arrears under the support order; or

     (2) a payment schedule if a payment schedule has been established for payment of continuing support and accumulated arrears under a support order applicable to the child.

 (b) In this section, “noncustodial parent” means the parent who has actual physical custody of the child for less time than the other parent.




Sec. 25.24.240. Effect and modification of decree.
 (a) A decree of dissolution issued under AS 25.24.200 — 25.24.260 shall have the same force and effect as a decree granted under AS 25.24.010 — 25.24.180.

 (b) A decree of dissolution granted under AS 25.24.200 — 25.24.260 may be modified or enlarged as prescribed by AS 25.24.150 — 25.24.170.




Sec. 25.24.250. Forms.
 (a) The Department of Law, in cooperation with the administrator of the Alaska Court System, shall prepare forms and instructions for use by persons wishing to obtain a dissolution of their marriage under AS 25.24.200 — 25.24.260 and wishing to utilize the services of the child support services agency. The forms shall conform to the requirements of the Alaska Rules of Civil Procedure, except that information appearing on the forms in legible handwriting shall be acceptable.

 (b) Forms prepared under (a) of this section shall be made available to the public at each office of the division of social services of the Department of Health and Social Services, and every superior court, and wherever else considered necessary by the Department of Law.

 (c) Forms or instructions prepared under (a) of this section must specify that the dissolution petition constitutes the entire agreement between the parties and must provide examples of kinds of property and obligations that are subject to distribution.




Sec. 25.24.260. Right to file action for divorce.
No spouse may be precluded from filing an action for divorce under AS 25.24.010 — 25.24.180 upon dismissal or denial of a petition filed under AS 25.24.200 — 25.24.260.

Article 3. Representation of Minor.
Sec. 25.24.300. [Renumbered as AS 25.20.140.]
Sec. 25.24.310. Representation of minor.
 (a) In an action involving a question of the custody, support, or visitation of a child, the court may, upon the motion of a party to the action or upon its own motion, appoint an attorney or the office of public advocacy to represent a minor with respect to the custody, support, and visitation of the minor or in any other legal proceeding involving the minor’s welfare or to represent an unmarried 18-year-old child with respect to post-majority support while the child is actively pursuing a high school diploma or an equivalent level of technical or vocational training and living as a dependent with a parent or guardian or a designee of the parent or guardian. When custody, support, or visitation is at issue in a divorce, it is the responsibility of the parties or their counsel to notify the court that such a matter is at issue. Upon notification, the court shall determine whether the minor or other child should have legal representation or other services and shall make a finding on the record before trial. If the parties are indigent or temporarily without funds, the court shall appoint the office of public advocacy. The court shall notify the office of public advocacy if the office is required to provide legal representation or other services. The court shall enter an order for costs, fees, and disbursements in favor of the state and may further order that other services be provided for the protection of the minor or other child.

 (b) If custody, support, or visitation is at issue, the order for costs, fees, and disbursements shall be made against either or both parents, except that, if one of the parties responsible for the costs is indigent, the costs, fees, and disbursements for that party shall be borne by the state. If the parents are only temporarily without funds, the office of public advocacy shall provide legal representation or other services required by the court. The attorney general is responsible for enforcing collections owed the state. Repayment shall be made to the Department of Revenue under AS 37.10.050 for deposit in the general fund. The court shall, if possible, avoid assigning costs to only one party by ordering that costs of the minor’s legal representation or other services be paid from proceeds derived from a sale of joint, community, or individual property of the parties before a division of property is made.

 (c) Instead of, or in addition to, appointment of an attorney under (a) of this section, the court may, upon the motion of either party or upon its own motion, appoint an attorney or other person or the office of public advocacy to provide guardian ad litem services to a child in any legal proceedings involving the child’s welfare. The court shall require a guardian ad litem when, in the opinion of the court, representation of the child’s best interests, to be distinguished from preferences, would serve the welfare of the child. The court in its order appointing a guardian ad litem shall limit the duration of the appointment of the guardian ad litem to the pendency of the legal proceedings affecting the child’s interests, and shall outline the guardian ad litem’s responsibilities and limit the authority to those matters related to the guardian’s effective representation of the child’s best interests in the pending legal proceeding. The court shall make every reasonable effort to appoint a guardian ad litem from among persons in the community where the child’s parents or the person having legal custody or guardianship of the child’s person reside. When custody, support, or visitation is at issue in a divorce, it is the responsibility of the parties or their counsel to notify the court that such a matter is at issue. Upon notification, the court shall determine if a child’s best interests need representation or if a minor or other child needs other services and shall make a finding on the record before trial. If one or both of the parties is indigent or temporarily without funds the court shall appoint the office of public advocacy. The court shall notify the office of public advocacy if the office is required to provide guardian ad litem services. The court shall enter an order for costs, fees, and disbursements in favor of the state and may further order that other services be provided for the protection of a minor or other child.




Article 4. Legal Separation.
Sec. 25.24.400. Complaint for legal separation.
A husband or a wife may separately or jointly file a complaint in the superior court for a legal separation. A legal separation may be granted no more than once to the same married couple.

Sec. 25.24.410. Grounds for a legal separation.
A legal separation may be granted by the court based on a finding that
     (1) an incompatibility of temperament exists between the parties; and

     (2) the continuation of the parties’ status as married persons preserves or protects significant legal, financial, social, or religious interests.




Sec. 25.24.420. Residency required.
One of the parties to a complaint for legal separation must be a resident of the state at the time the action is commenced.

Sec. 25.24.430. Consolidation of actions.
If, at any time, a party to an action for legal separation files an action for divorce or annulment, the court shall consolidate the new action with the action for legal separation.

Sec. 25.24.440. Applicability of other statutes.
The following statutes relating to divorce actions shall be applied similarly to an action for legal separation: AS 25.24.060, 25.24.140, 25.24.150, 25.24.152, 25.24.160, and 25.24.170.

Sec. 25.24.450. Decree.
 (a) If a court finds that the grounds specified under AS 25.24.410 exist, the court may enter a decree of legal separation.

 (b) Unless otherwise provided in the decree, provisions for child custody and visitation, child support, and spousal support included in a decree of legal separation are final orders subject to modification only as provided in AS 25.20.110 and AS 25.24.170.

 (c) If the decree of legal separation includes provisions for division of property and debts of the marriage, the decree must state whether the division is an interim or final order. To the extent the division is not a final order, the court shall determine the parties’ respective rights to and responsibilities for property and obligations not finally distributed and as to any property or debts accrued by either party while the order is in effect.




Sec. 25.24.460. Effect of separation.
A decree of legal separation does not restore the parties to the status of unmarried persons. A decree of legal separation modifies the parties’ rights and responsibilities as married persons only to the extent specified in the decree of separation.

Article 5. General Provisions.
Sec. 25.24.900. Residency of military personnel.
A person serving in a military branch of the United States government who has been continuously stationed at a military base or installation in the state for at least 30 days is considered a resident of the state for the purposes of this chapter.

Sec. 25.24.910. Payment of support to 18-year-olds.
When a court order or judgment provides for child support to be paid for the care of an unmarried 18-year-old child who is actively pursuing a high school diploma or an equivalent level of technical or vocational training while living as a dependent with a parent, guardian, or designee of the parent or guardian, the order or judgment may provide for the support to be paid directly to the child upon terms and conditions considered appropriate by the court.

Sec. 25.24.920. Provision of information to child support services agency.
For purposes of 42 U.S.C. 666 and AS 25.27.193, when a court order or judgment provides for child support to be paid, the clerk of the court shall provide a copy of the order or judgment to the child support services agency created in AS 25.27.010.

Sec. 25.24.990. Definition.
In this chapter, “animal” means a vertebrate living creature not a human being.

Chapter 25. Uniform Interstate Family Support Act.

Article 1. General Provisions.
Secs. 25.25.010 — 25.25.100. [Repealed, § 21 ch 57 SLA 1995.]
Sec. 25.25.101. Definitions.
In this chapter,
     (1) “child” means an individual, whether over or under the age of majority, who is or is alleged to be owed a duty of support by the individual’s parent or who is or is alleged to be the beneficiary of a support order directed to the parent;

     (2) “child support order” means a support order for a child, including a child who has attained the age of majority under the law of the issuing state or foreign country;

     (3) “convention” means the Convention on the International Recovery of Child Support and Other Forms of Family Maintenance, concluded at The Hague on November 23, 2007;

     (4) “duty of support” means an obligation imposed or imposable by law to provide support for a child, spouse, or former spouse, including an unsatisfied obligation to provide support;

     (5) “foreign country” means a country, including a political subdivision of a country, other than the United States, that authorizes the issuance of support orders and
          (A) that has been declared under the law of the United States to be a foreign reciprocating country;

          (B) that has established a reciprocal arrangement for child support with this state as provided in AS 25.25.308(b);

          (C) that has enacted a law or established procedures for the issuance and enforcement of support orders that are substantially similar to the procedures under this chapter; or

          (D) in which the convention is in force with respect to the United States;

     (6) “foreign support order” means a support order of a foreign tribunal;

     (7) “foreign tribunal” means a court, administrative agency, or quasi-judicial entity of a foreign country that is authorized to establish, enforce, or modify support orders or determine parentage of a child; “foreign tribunal” includes a competent authority under the convention;

     (8) “home state” means the state or the foreign country in which a child lived with a parent or a person acting as a parent for at least six consecutive months immediately preceding the time of filing of a complaint or comparable pleading for support and, if a child is less than six months old, the state or the foreign country in which the child lived from birth with a parent or person acting as a parent; a period of temporary absence of a parent or person acting as a parent is counted as part of the six-month or other period;

     (9) “income” includes earnings or other periodic entitlements to money from any source and any other property subject to withholding for support under the law of this state;

     (10) “income withholding order” means an order or other legal process directed to an obligor, an obligor’s employer, an obligor’s future employer, or another person, political subdivision, or department of the state, under AS 25.27 to withhold support from the income of the obligor under AS 25.27;

     (11) “initiating tribunal” means the tribunal of a state or foreign country from which a complaint or comparable pleading is forwarded or in which a complaint or comparable pleading is filed for forwarding to another state or foreign country;

     (12) “issuing foreign country” means the foreign country in which a tribunal issues a support order or a judgment determining parentage of a child;

     (13) “issuing state” means the state in which a tribunal issues a support order or a judgment determining parentage of a child;

     (14) “issuing tribunal” means the tribunal of a state or foreign country that issues a support order or a judgment determining parentage of a child;

     (15) “law” includes decisional and statutory law and rules and regulations having the force of law;

     (16) “obligee” means
          (A) an individual to whom a duty of support is or is alleged to be owed or in whose favor a support order or a judgment determining parentage of a child has been issued;

          (B) a foreign country, state, or political subdivision of a state to which the rights under a duty of support or support order have been assigned or that has independent claims based on financial assistance provided to an individual obligee in place of child support;

          (C) an individual seeking a judgment determining parentage of the individual’s child; or

          (D) a person that is a creditor in a proceeding under AS 25.25.702 — 25.25.714;

     (17) “obligor” means an individual or the estate of a decedent that
          (A) owes or is alleged to owe a duty of support;

          (B) is alleged but has not been adjudicated to be a parent of a child;

          (C) is liable under a support order; or

          (D) is a debtor in a proceeding under AS 25.25.702 — 25.25.714;

     (18) “outside this state” means a location in another state or a country other than the United States, whether or not the country is a foreign country;

     (19) “person” means an individual, corporation, business trust, estate, trust, partnership, limited liability company, association, joint venture, public corporation, government or governmental subdivision, agency, or instrumentality, or any other legal or commercial entity;

     (20) “record” means information that is inscribed on a tangible medium or that is stored in an electronic or other medium and is retrievable in perceivable form.

     (21) “register” means to file in a tribunal of this state a support order or judgment issued in another state or a foreign country determining parentage of a child;

     (22) “registering tribunal” means the tribunal in which a support order or judgment determining parentage of a child is registered;

     (23) “responding state” means a state in which a complaint or comparable pleading for support or to determine parentage of a child is filed or to which a complaint or comparable pleading is forwarded for filing from another state or foreign country;

     (24) “responding tribunal” means the authorized tribunal in a responding state or foreign country;

     (25) “spousal support order” means a support order for a spouse or former spouse of the obligor;

     (26) “state” means a state of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the United States Virgin Islands, or any territory or insular possession subject to the jurisdiction of the United States; the term “state” includes an Indian nation or tribe;

     (27) “support enforcement agency” means a public official, governmental entity, or private agency authorized to
          (A) seek enforcement of support orders or laws relating to the duty of support;

          (B) seek establishment or modification of child support orders;

          (C) request determination of parentage of a child;

          (D) attempt to locate obligors or their assets; or

          (E) request determination of the controlling child support order;

     (28) “support order” means a judgment, decree, order, decision, or directive, whether temporary, final, or subject to modification, issued in a state or foreign country for the benefit of a child, a spouse, or a former spouse, that provides for monetary support, health care, arrearages, retroactive support, or reimbursement for financial assistance provided to an individual obligee in place of child support; “support order” may include related costs and fees, interest, income withholding, automatic adjustment, reasonable attorney fees, and other relief;

     (29) “tribunal” means a court, administrative agency, or quasi-judicial entity authorized to establish, enforce, or modify support orders or to determine parentage of a child.




Sec. 25.25.102. State tribunal and support enforcement.
 (a) The superior court and the child support services agency are the tribunals of this state.

 (b) The child support services agency created in AS 25.27.010 is the support enforcement agency of this state.




Sec. 25.25.103. Remedies cumulative.
 (a) Remedies provided by this chapter are cumulative and do not affect the availability of remedies under other law or the recognition of a support order on the basis of comity.

 (b) This chapter does not
     (1) provide the exclusive method of establishing or enforcing a support order under the law of this state; or

     (2) grant a tribunal of this state jurisdiction to render judgment or issue an order relating to child custody or visitation in a proceeding under this chapter.




Sec. 25.25.104. Application of this chapter to resident of foreign country and foreign support proceeding.
 (a) A tribunal of this state shall apply AS 25.25.101 — 25.25.616 and, as applicable, AS 25.25.702 — 25.25.714, to a support proceeding involving
     (1) a foreign support order;

     (2) a foreign tribunal; or

     (3) an obligee, obligor, or child residing in a foreign country.

 (b) A tribunal of this state that is requested to recognize and enforce a support order on the basis of comity may apply the procedural and substantive provisions of AS 25.25.101 — 25.25.616.

 (c) AS 25.25.702 — 25.25.714 apply only to a support proceeding under the convention. In such a proceeding, if a provision of AS 25.25.702 — 25.25.714 is inconsistent with AS 25.25.101 — 25.25.616, AS 25.25.702 — 25.25.714 controls.




Secs. 25.25.110 — 25.25.200. [Repealed, § 21 ch 57 SLA 1995.]
Article 2. Jurisdiction.
Sec. 25.25.201. Bases for jurisdiction over nonresident.
 (a) In a proceeding to establish or enforce a support order or to determine parentage of a child, a tribunal of this state may exercise personal jurisdiction over a nonresident individual or the individual’s guardian or conservator if
     (1) the individual is personally served with a citation, summons, or notice within this state;

     (2) the individual submits to the jurisdiction of this state by consent in a record, by entering a general appearance, or by filing a responsive document having the effect of waiving any contest to personal jurisdiction;

     (3) the individual resided with the child in this state;

     (4) the individual resided in this state and provided prenatal expenses or support for the child;

     (5) the child resides in this state as a result of the acts or directives of the individual;

     (6) the individual engaged in sexual intercourse in this state and the child may have been conceived by that act of intercourse;

     (7) the individual acknowledged parentage of a child in a writing deposited with the Bureau of Vital Statistics under AS 25.20.050; or

     (8) there is another basis consistent with the constitutions of this state and the United States for the exercise of personal jurisdiction.

 (b) The bases of personal jurisdiction set out in (a) of this section or in any other law of this state may not be used to acquire personal jurisdiction for a tribunal of this state to modify a child support order of another state unless the requirements of AS 25.25.611 are met or, in the case of a foreign support order, unless the requirements of AS 25.25.615 are met.




Sec. 25.25.202. Duration of personal jurisdiction.
Personal jurisdiction acquired by a tribunal of this state in a proceeding under this chapter or other law of this state relating to a support order continues as long as a tribunal of this state has continuing, exclusive jurisdiction to modify its order or continuing jurisdiction to enforce its order as provided by AS 25.25.205, 25.25.206, and 25.25.281.

Sec. 25.25.203. Initiating and responding tribunal of this state.
Under this chapter, a tribunal of this state may serve as an initiating tribunal to forward proceedings to a tribunal of another state and as a responding tribunal for proceedings initiated in another state or a foreign country.

Sec. 25.25.204. Simultaneous proceedings.
 (a) A tribunal of this state may exercise jurisdiction to establish a support order if the complaint or comparable pleading is filed after a complaint or comparable pleading is filed in another state or a foreign country only if
     (1) the complaint or comparable pleading in this state is filed before the expiration of the time allowed in the other state or the foreign country for filing a responsive pleading challenging the exercise of jurisdiction by the other state or the foreign country;

     (2) the contesting party timely challenges the exercise of jurisdiction in the other state or the foreign country; and

     (3) if relevant, this state is the home state of the child.

 (b) A tribunal of this state may not exercise jurisdiction to establish a support order if the complaint or comparable pleading is filed before a complaint or comparable pleading is filed in another state or a foreign country if
     (1) the complaint or comparable pleading in the other state or the foreign country is filed before the expiration of the time allowed in this state for filing a responsive pleading challenging the exercise of jurisdiction by this state;

     (2) the contesting party timely challenges the exercise of jurisdiction in this state; and

     (3) if relevant, the other state or the foreign country is the home state of the child.




Sec. 25.25.205. Continuing, exclusive jurisdiction to modify child support order.
 (a) A tribunal of this state that has issued a child support order consistent with the law of this state has and shall exercise continuing, exclusive jurisdiction to modify its child support order if the order is the controlling order and,
     (1) at the time of the filing of a request for modification, this state is the residence of the obligor, the individual obligee, or the child for whose benefit the support order is issued; or

     (2) even if this state is not the residence of the obligor, the individual obligee, or the child for whose benefit the support order is issued, the parties consent in a record or in open court that the tribunal of this state may continue to exercise jurisdiction to modify its order.

 (b) A tribunal of this state that has issued a child support order consistent with the law of this state may not exercise continuing, exclusive jurisdiction to modify the order if
     (1) all of the parties who are individuals file consent in a record with the tribunal of this state that a tribunal of another state that has jurisdiction over at least one of the parties who is an individual or that is located in the state of residence of the child may modify the order and assume continuing, exclusive jurisdiction; or

     (2) the tribunal’s order is not the controlling order.

 (c) If a tribunal of another state has issued a child support order under this chapter or a law substantially similar to this chapter that modifies a child support order of a tribunal of this state, a tribunal of this state shall recognize the continuing, exclusive jurisdiction of the tribunal of the other state.

 (d) A tribunal of this state that lacks continuing, exclusive jurisdiction to modify a child support order may serve as an initiating tribunal to request a tribunal of another state to modify a support order issued in that state.

 (e) A temporary support order issued ex parte or pending resolution of a jurisdictional conflict does not create continuing, exclusive jurisdiction in the issuing tribunal.

 (f) [Repealed, § 32 ch 102 SLA 2015.]




Sec. 25.25.206. Continuing jurisdiction to enforce child support order.
 (a) A tribunal of this state that has issued a child support order consistent with the laws of this state may serve as an initiating tribunal to request a tribunal of another state to enforce
     (1) the order if the order is the controlling order and has not been modified by a tribunal of another state that assumed jurisdiction under this chapter; or

     (2) a money judgment for arrears of support and interest on the order accrued before a determination that an order of a tribunal of another state is the controlling order.

 (b) A tribunal of this state having continuing jurisdiction over a support order may act as a responding tribunal to enforce the order.

 (c) [Repealed, § 32 ch 102 SLA 2015.]




Sec. 25.25.207. Determination of controlling child support order.
 (a) If a proceeding is brought under this chapter and only one tribunal has issued a child support order, the order of that tribunal is controlling and shall be recognized.

 (b) If a proceeding is brought under this chapter and two or more child support orders have been issued by tribunals of this state, another state, or a foreign country with regard to the same obligor and same child, a tribunal of this state having personal jurisdiction over both the obligor and individual obligee shall apply the following rules and shall determine, by order, which order controls and must be recognized:
     (1) if only one of the tribunals would have continuing, exclusive jurisdiction under this chapter, the order of that tribunal is controlling and shall be recognized;

     (2) if more than one of the tribunals would have continuing, exclusive jurisdiction under this chapter,
          (A) an order issued by a tribunal in the current home state of the child controls; or

          (B) if an order has not been issued in the current home state of the child, the order most recently issued controls;

     (3) if none of the tribunals would have continuing, exclusive jurisdiction under this chapter, the tribunal of this state shall issue a child support order, which controls.

 (c) If two or more child support orders have been issued for the same obligor and same child, upon request of a party who is an individual or that is a support enforcement agency, a tribunal of this state having personal jurisdiction over both the obligor and the obligee who is an individual shall determine which order controls under (b) of this section. The request may be filed with a registration for enforcement or a registration for modification under AS 25.25.601 — 25.25.616 or may be filed as a separate proceeding.

 (d) The tribunal that issued the controlling order under (a), (b), or (c) of this section has continuing jurisdiction to the extent provided in AS 25.25.205 or 25.25.206.

 (e) A tribunal of this state that determines, by order, which is the controlling child support order under (b)(1) or (2) or (c) of this section, or that issues a new controlling child support order under (b)(3) of this section, shall include in that order
     (1) the basis upon which the tribunal made its determination;

     (2) the amount of prospective support, if any; and

     (3) the total amount of consolidated arrears and accrued interest, if any, under all of the orders after all payments made are credited as provided by AS 25.25.209.

 (f) Within 30 days after issuance of the order determining which is the controlling order, the party obtaining that order shall file a certified copy of that order in each tribunal that had issued or registered an earlier order of child support. Failure of the party or the support enforcement agency obtaining the order to file a certified copy as required under this subsection subjects that party to appropriate sanctions by a tribunal in which the issue of failure to file arises, but that failure has no effect on the validity or enforceability of the controlling order.

 (g) A request to determine which is the controlling order must be accompanied by a copy of every child support order in effect and the applicable record of payments. The requesting party shall give notice of the request to each party whose rights may be affected by the determination.

 (h) An order that has been determined to be the controlling order, or a judgment for consolidated arrears of support and interest, if any, made under this section must be recognized in proceedings under this chapter.




Sec. 25.25.208. Child support orders for two or more obligees.
In responding to registrations or complaints for enforcement of two or more child support orders in effect at the same time with regard to the same obligor and different individual obligees, when at least one of the orders was issued by a tribunal of another state or a foreign country, a tribunal of this state shall enforce those orders in the same manner as if the orders had been issued by a tribunal of this state.

Sec. 25.25.209. Credit for payments.
A tribunal of this state shall credit amounts collected for a particular period under any child support order against the amounts owed for the same period under any other child support order for support of the same child issued by a tribunal of this state, another state, or a foreign country.

Secs. 25.25.210 — 25.25.270. [Repealed, § 21 ch 57 SLA 1995.]
Sec. 25.25.280. Application of this chapter to nonresident subject to personal jurisdiction.
A tribunal of this state exercising personal jurisdiction over a nonresident in a proceeding under this chapter, under other law of this state relating to a support order, or recognizing a foreign support order may receive evidence from outside this state under AS 25.25.316, communicate with a tribunal outside this state under AS 25.25.317, and obtain discovery through a tribunal outside this state under AS 25.25.318. In all other respects, AS 25.25.301 — 25.25.616 do not apply, and the tribunal shall apply the procedural and substantive law of this state.

Sec. 25.25.281. Continuing, exclusive jurisdiction to modify spousal support order.
 (a) A tribunal of this state issuing a spousal support order consistent with the law of this state has continuing, exclusive jurisdiction to modify the spousal support order throughout the existence of the support obligation.

 (b) A tribunal of this state may not modify a spousal support order issued by a tribunal of another state or a foreign country having continuing, exclusive jurisdiction over that order under the law of that state or foreign country.

 (c) A tribunal of this state that has continuing, exclusive jurisdiction over a spousal support order may serve as
     (1) an initiating tribunal to request a tribunal of another state to enforce the spousal support order issued in this state; or

     (2) a responding tribunal to enforce or modify its own spousal support order.




Article 3. Civil Provisions of General Application.
Sec. 25.25.301. Proceedings under this chapter.
 (a) Except as otherwise provided in this chapter, AS 25.25.301 — 25.25.319 apply to all proceedings under this chapter.

 (b) [Repealed, § 32 ch 102 SLA 2015.]
 (c) An individual or a support enforcement agency may initiate a proceeding authorized under this chapter by filing a complaint or a comparable pleading in an initiating tribunal for forwarding to a responding tribunal or by filing a complaint or a comparable pleading directly in a tribunal of another state or a foreign country that has or can obtain personal jurisdiction over the respondent.




Sec. 25.25.302. Proceeding by minor parent.
A minor parent, or a guardian or other legal representative of a minor parent, may maintain a proceeding on behalf of or for the benefit of the minor’s child.

Sec. 25.25.303. Application of law of this state.
Except as otherwise provided in this chapter, a responding tribunal of this state shall
     (1) apply the procedural and substantive law generally applicable to similar proceedings originating in this state and may exercise all powers and provide all remedies available in those proceedings; and

     (2) determine the duty of support and the amount payable under the law and support guidelines of this state.




Sec. 25.25.304. Duties of initiating tribunal.
 (a) Upon the filing of a complaint or comparable pleading authorized by this chapter, an initiating tribunal of this state shall forward the complaint or comparable pleading and its accompanying documents
     (1) to the responding tribunal or appropriate support enforcement agency in the responding state; or

     (2) if the identity of the responding tribunal is unknown, to the state information agency of the responding state with a request that they be forwarded to the appropriate tribunal and that receipt be acknowledged.

 (b) If requested by the responding tribunal, a tribunal of this state shall issue a certificate or other documents and make findings required by the law of the responding state. If the responding tribunal is in a foreign country, upon request, the tribunal of this state shall specify the amount of support sought, convert the amount into the equivalent amount in the foreign currency under the applicable official or market exchange rate as publicly reported, and provide any other documents necessary to satisfy the requirements of the responding foreign tribunal.




Sec. 25.25.305. Duties and powers of responding tribunal.
 (a) When a responding tribunal of this state receives a complaint or comparable pleading from an initiating tribunal or directly under AS 25.25.301(c), it shall cause the complaint or pleading to be filed and notify the petitioner where and when it was filed.

 (b) A responding tribunal of this state, to the extent not prohibited by law, may do one or more of the following:
     (1) establish or enforce a support order, modify a child support order, determine the controlling child support order, or determine parentage of the child;

     (2) order an obligor to comply with a support order, specifying the amount and the manner of compliance;

     (3) order income withholding;

     (4) determine the amount of any arrearages, and specify a method of payment;

     (5) enforce orders by civil or criminal contempt, or both;

     (6) set aside property for satisfaction of the support order;

     (7) place liens and order execution on the obligor’s property;

     (8) order an obligor to keep the tribunal informed of the obligor’s current residential address, electronic mailing address, telephone number, employer, address of employment, and telephone number at the place of employment;

     (9) issue a bench warrant for an obligor who has failed after proper notice to appear at a hearing ordered by the tribunal and enter the bench warrant in any local and state computer systems for criminal warrants;

     (10) order the obligor to seek appropriate employment by specified methods;

     (11) award reasonable attorney fees and other fees and costs; and

     (12) grant any other available remedy.

 (c) A responding tribunal of this state shall include in a support order issued under this chapter, or in the documents accompanying the order, the calculations on which the support order is based.

 (d) A responding tribunal of this state may not condition the payment of a support order issued under this chapter upon compliance by a party with provisions for visitation.

 (e) If a responding tribunal of this state issues an order under this chapter, the tribunal shall send a copy of the order to the petitioner and the respondent and to the initiating tribunal, if any.

 (f) If requested to enforce a support order, arrears, or judgment or modify a support order stated in a foreign currency, a responding tribunal of this state shall convert the amount stated in the foreign currency to the equivalent amount in dollars under the applicable official or market exchange rate as publicly reported.




Sec. 25.25.306. Inappropriate tribunal.
If a complaint or comparable pleading is received by an inappropriate tribunal of this state, the tribunal shall forward the complaint or pleading, and accompanying documents, to an appropriate tribunal in this state or another state and notify the petitioner where and when the complaint or pleading was sent.

Sec. 25.25.307. Duties of child support services agency.
 (a) The child support services agency of this state, upon request, shall provide services to a petitioner in a proceeding under this chapter.

 (b) In providing services under this chapter to the petitioner, the child support services agency of this state shall
     (1) take all steps necessary to enable an appropriate tribunal of this state, another state, or a foreign country to obtain jurisdiction over the respondent;

     (2) request an appropriate tribunal to set a date, time, and place for a hearing;

     (3) make a reasonable effort to obtain all relevant information, including information as to income and property of the parties;

     (4) send notice in a record from an initiating, responding, or registering tribunal to the petitioner within five days after receipt, exclusive of Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays;

     (5) send a copy of a communication in a record from the respondent or the respondent’s attorney to the petitioner within five days after receipt, exclusive of Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays; and

     (6) notify the petitioner if jurisdiction over the respondent cannot be obtained.

 (c) This chapter does not create or negate a relationship of attorney and client or other fiduciary relationship between the child support services agency or the attorney for the agency and the individual being assisted by the agency.

 (d) A support enforcement agency of this state that requests registration of a child support order in this state for enforcement or modification shall make reasonable efforts
     (1) to ensure that the order to be registered is the controlling order; or

     (2) if two or more child support orders exist and the identity of the controlling order has not been determined, to ensure that a request for the determination is made in a tribunal having jurisdiction to do so.

 (e) A support enforcement agency of this state that requests registration and enforcement of a support order, arrears, or judgment stated in a foreign currency shall convert the amounts stated in the foreign currency into the equivalent amounts in dollars under the applicable official or market exchange rate as publicly reported.

 (f) A support enforcement agency of this state shall issue or request a tribunal of this state to issue a child support order and an income withholding order that redirect payment of current support, arrears, and interest if requested to do so by a support enforcement agency of another state under AS 25.25.319.




Sec. 25.25.308. Duty of the Department of Revenue.
 (a) If the Department of Revenue determines that the support enforcement agency is neglecting or refusing to provide services to an individual, the Department of Revenue may order the agency to perform its duties under this chapter or may provide those services directly to the individual.

 (b) The Department of Revenue may determine that a foreign country has established a reciprocal arrangement for child support with this state and take appropriate action for notification of the determination.




Sec. 25.25.309. Private counsel.
An individual may employ private counsel to represent the individual in proceedings authorized by this chapter.

Sec. 25.25.310. Duties of state information and locator agency.
The child support services agency is the state information agency under this chapter, and it shall
     (1) compile and maintain a current list, including addresses, of the tribunals in this state that have jurisdiction under this chapter and the appropriate agency offices in this state and transmit a copy to the state information agency of every other state;

     (2) maintain a register of the names and addresses of tribunals and support enforcement agencies received from other states;

     (3) forward to the appropriate tribunal in this state all documents concerning a proceeding under this chapter received from another state or a foreign country; and

     (4) obtain information concerning the location of the obligor and the obligor’s property within this state that is not exempt from execution by postal verification and federal or state locator services, examination of telephone directories, requests for the obligor’s address from employers, and examination of governmental records, including, to the extent not prohibited by other law, those relating to real property, vital statistics, law enforcement, taxation, motor vehicles, driver’s licenses, and social security.




Sec. 25.25.311. Pleadings and accompanying documents.
 (a) In a proceeding under this chapter, a petitioner seeking to establish a support order to determine parentage of a child or to register and modify a support order of a tribunal of another state or a foreign country shall file a complaint or comparable pleading. Unless otherwise ordered under AS 25.25.312, or otherwise prohibited by law, the complaint or comparable pleading or accompanying documents must provide, so far as known, the name, residential address, and social security numbers of the obligor and the obligee or the parent and the alleged parent, and the name, sex, residential address, social security number, and date of birth of each child for whose benefit support is sought or whose parentage is to be determined. Unless filed at the time of registration, the complaint or comparable pleading must be accompanied by a copy of any support order known to have been issued by another tribunal. The complaint or comparable pleading may include other information that may assist in locating or identifying the respondent.

 (b) The complaint or comparable pleading must specify the relief sought. The complaint or comparable pleading and accompanying documents must conform substantially with the requirements imposed by the forms mandated by federal law for use in cases filed by a support enforcement agency.




Sec. 25.25.312. Nondisclosure of information in exceptional circumstances.
If a party alleges in an affidavit or a pleading under oath that the health, safety, or liberty of a party or child would be jeopardized by disclosure of specific identifying information, that information must be sealed and may not be disclosed to the other party or the public. After a hearing in which a tribunal takes into consideration the health, safety, or liberty of the party or child, the tribunal may order disclosure of information that the tribunal determines to be in the interest of justice.

Sec. 25.25.313. Costs and fees.
 (a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, including a rule of the Alaska Supreme Court, at the time a complaint or comparable pleading is filed under this chapter, a tribunal may not require the petitioner to pay a filing fee or other costs.

 (b) If an obligee prevails, a responding tribunal of this state may assess against an obligor filing fees, including fees that were waived under (a) of this section, reasonable attorney fees, other costs, necessary travel expenses, and other reasonable expenses incurred by the obligee and the obligee’s witnesses. The tribunal may not assess fees, costs, or expenses against the obligee or the support enforcement agency of either the initiating or the responding state or foreign country except as required by other law or court rule. Attorney fees may be taxed as costs, and may be ordered paid directly to the attorney, who may enforce the order in the attorney’s own name. Payment of support owed to the obligee has priority over fees, costs, and expenses assessed under this subsection.

 (c) The tribunal shall order the payment of costs and reasonable attorney fees, including filing fees that were waived under (a) of this section, by a party who requests a hearing under this chapter if it determines that the hearing was requested primarily for delay. In a proceeding under AS 25.25.601 — 25.25.612, a hearing is presumed to have been requested primarily for delay if a registered support order is confirmed or enforced without change; however, the party who requested the hearing may present evidence to rebut this presumption.




Sec. 25.25.314. Limited immunity of petitioner.
 (a) Participation by a petitioner in a proceeding under this chapter before a responding tribunal, whether in person, by private attorney, or through services provided by the support enforcement agency, does not confer personal jurisdiction over the petitioner in another proceeding.

 (b) A petitioner is not amenable to service of civil process while physically present in this state to participate in a proceeding under this chapter.

 (c) The immunity granted by this section does not extend to civil litigation based on acts unrelated to a proceeding under this chapter committed by a party while present in this state to participate in the proceeding.




Sec. 25.25.315. Nonparentage as defense.
A party whose parentage of a child has been previously determined under law may not plead nonparentage as a defense to a proceeding under this chapter.

Sec. 25.25.316. Special rules of evidence and procedure.
 (a) The physical presence of a nonresident party who is an individual in a tribunal of this state is not required for the establishment, enforcement, or modification of a support order or the rendition of a judgment determining parentage of a child.

 (b) An affidavit, a document substantially complying with federally mandated forms, or a document incorporated by reference in any of them, which would not be excluded under the hearsay rule if given in person, is admissible in evidence if given under penalty of perjury by a party or witness residing outside this state.

 (c) A copy of the record of child support payments certified as a true copy of the original by the custodian of the record may be forwarded to a responding tribunal. The copy is evidence of facts asserted in it and is admissible to show whether payments were made.

 (d) Copies of bills for testing for parentage of a child, and for prenatal and postnatal health care of the mother and child, furnished to the adverse party at least 10 days before trial or other proceeding, are admissible in evidence to prove the amount of the charges billed and that the charges were reasonable, necessary, and customary.

 (e) Documentary evidence transmitted from outside this state to a tribunal of this state by telephone, facsimile, or other electronic means that do not provide an original record may not be excluded from evidence on an objection based on the means of transmission.

 (f) In a proceeding under this chapter, a tribunal of this state shall permit a party or witness residing outside this state to be deposed or to testify under penalty of perjury by telephone, audiovisual means, or other electronic means at a designated tribunal or other location. A tribunal of this state shall cooperate with other tribunals in designating an appropriate location for the deposition or testimony.

 (g) If a party called to testify at a civil hearing refuses to answer on the ground that the testimony may be self-incriminating, the trier of fact may draw an adverse inference from the refusal.

 (h) A privilege against disclosure of communications between spouses does not apply in a proceeding under this chapter.

 (i) The defense of immunity based on the relationship of husband and wife or parent and child does not apply in a proceeding under this chapter.




Sec. 25.25.317. Communications between tribunals.
A tribunal of this state may communicate with a tribunal outside this state in a record, or by telephone, electronic mail, or other means, to obtain information concerning the laws, the legal effect of a judgment, decree, or order of that tribunal, and the status of a proceeding. A tribunal of this state may furnish similar information by similar means to a tribunal outside this state.

Sec. 25.25.318. Assistance with discovery.
A tribunal of this state may
     (1) request a tribunal outside this state to assist in obtaining discovery; and

     (2) upon request, compel a person over which it has jurisdiction to respond to a discovery order issued by a tribunal outside this state.




Sec. 25.25.319. Receipt and disbursement of payments.
 (a) The child support services agency of this state shall disburse promptly any amounts received under a support order, as directed by the order. The agency shall furnish to a requesting party or tribunal of another state or a foreign country a certified statement by the custodian of the record of the amounts and dates of all payments received.

 (b) If neither the obligor, nor the obligee who is an individual, nor the child resides in this state, upon request from the support enforcement agency of this state or another state, the support enforcement agency of this state or a tribunal of this state shall
     (1) direct that the support payment be made to the support enforcement agency of the state in which the obligee is receiving services; and

     (2) issue and send to the obligor’s employer a conforming income withholding order or an administrative notice of change of payee, reflecting the redirected payments.

 (c) The support enforcement agency of this state receiving redirected payments from another state under a law similar to (b) of this section shall furnish to a requesting party or tribunal of the other state a certified statement by the custodian of the record of the amount and dates of all payments received.




Article 4. Establishment of Support Order or Determination of Parentage.
Sec. 25.25.401. Establishment of support order.
 (a) If a support order entitled to recognition under this chapter has not been issued, a responding tribunal of this state with personal jurisdiction over the parties may issue a support order if
     (1) the individual seeking the order resides outside this state; or

     (2) the support enforcement agency seeking the order is located outside this state.

 (b) The tribunal may issue a temporary child support order if the tribunal determines that an order is appropriate and the individual ordered to pay is
     (1) a presumed father of the child;

     (2) petitioning to have the individual’s paternity adjudicated;

     (3) identified as the father of the child through genetic testing;

     (4) an alleged father who has declined to submit to genetic testing;

     (5) shown by clear and convincing evidence to be the father of the child;

     (6) an acknowledged father under AS 25.20.050;

     (7) the mother of the child; or

     (8) an individual who has been ordered to pay child support in a previous proceeding and the order has not been reversed or vacated.

 (c) [Repealed, § 32 ch 102 SLA 2015.]
 (d) If, after providing an obligor with notice and opportunity to be heard, an appropriate tribunal finds that the obligor owes a duty of support, the tribunal shall issue a support order directed to the obligor and may issue other orders under AS 25.25.305.

 (e) Before issuing an order under (b) of this section, the child support services agency shall adopt regulations for issuing such an order.




Sec. 25.25.402. Proceeding to determine parentage.
A tribunal of this state authorized to determine parentage of a child may serve as a responding tribunal in a proceeding to determine parentage of a child brought under this chapter or a law or procedure substantially similar to this chapter.

Article 5. Enforcement of Support Order Without Registration.
Sec. 25.25.501. Employer’s receipt of income withholding order of another state.
An income withholding order issued in another state may be sent by or on behalf of the obligee, or by the support enforcement agency, to the person defined as the obligor’s employer under AS 25.27 without first filing a complaint or comparable pleading or registering the order with a tribunal of this state.

Sec. 25.25.502. Employer’s compliance with income withholding order of another state.
 (a) Upon receipt of an order under AS 25.25.501, the obligor’s employer shall immediately provide a copy of the order to the obligor.

 (b) The employer shall treat an income withholding order issued in another state that appears regular on its face as if it were issued by a tribunal of this state.

 (c) Except as provided by (d) of this section and AS 25.25.503, the employer shall withhold and distribute the funds as directed in the withholding order by complying with the terms of the order, as applicable, that specify
     (1) the duration and the amount of periodic payments of current child support, stated as a sum certain;

     (2) the person designated to receive payments and the address to which the payments are to be forwarded;

     (3) medical support, whether in the form of periodic cash payment, stated as a sum certain, or an order to the obligor to provide health insurance coverage for the child under a policy available through the obligor’s employment;

     (4) the amount of periodic payments of fees and costs for a support enforcement agency, the issuing tribunal, and the obligee’s attorney, stated as sums certain; and

     (5) the amount of periodic payments of arrearages and interest on arrearages, stated as sums certain.

 (d) The employer shall comply with the law of the state of the obligor’s principal place of employment for withholding from income with respect to
     (1) the employer’s fee for processing an income withholding order;

     (2) the maximum amount permitted to be withheld from the obligor’s income; and

     (3) the time periods within which the employer must implement the withholding order and forward the child support payment.




Sec. 25.25.503. Employer’s compliance with two or more income withholding orders.
If an obligor’s employer receives two or more orders to withhold support from the earnings of the same obligor, the employer shall be considered to have satisfied the terms of the orders if the employer complies with the law of the state of the obligor’s principal place of employment to establish the priorities for withholding and allocating income withheld for two or more child support obligees.

Sec. 25.25.504. Immunity from civil liability.
An employer that complies with an income withholding order issued in another state in accordance with AS 25.25.501 — 25.25.505 is not subject to civil liability to an individual or agency with regard to the employer’s withholding of child support from the obligor’s income.

Sec. 25.25.505. Penalties for noncompliance.
An employer that wilfully fails to comply with an income withholding order issued in another state and received for enforcement is subject to the same penalties that may be imposed for noncompliance with an order issued by a tribunal of this state.

Sec. 25.25.506. Contest by obligor.
 (a) An obligor may contest the validity or enforcement of an income withholding order issued in another state and received directly by an employer in this state by registering the order in a tribunal of this state and filing a contest to that order as provided in AS 25.25.601 — 25.25.616 or otherwise contesting the order in the same manner as if the order were issued by a tribunal of this state. The provisions of AS 25.25.604 apply to the contest.

 (b) The obligor shall give notice of the contest to
     (1) a support enforcement agency providing services to the obligee;

     (2) each employer that has directly received an income withholding order relating to the obligor; and

     (3) if
          (A) a person is designated to receive payments in the income withholding order, to that person; or

          (B) no person is designated to receive payments in the income withholding order, to the obligee.




Sec. 25.25.507. Administrative enforcement of orders.
 (a) A party or support enforcement agency seeking to enforce a support order or an income withholding order, or both, issued in another state or a foreign support order may send the documents required for registering the order to the child support services agency of this state.

 (b) Upon receipt of the documents, the child support services agency, without initially seeking to register the order, shall consider and, if appropriate, use any administrative procedure authorized by the law of this state to enforce a support order or an income withholding order, or both. If the obligor does not contest administrative enforcement, the order need not be registered. If the obligor contests the validity or administrative enforcement of the order, the child support services agency shall register the order under this chapter.




Article 6. Registration, Enforcement, and Modification of Support Order.
Sec. 25.25.601. Registration of order for enforcement.
A support order or income withholding order issued in another state or a foreign support order may be registered in this state for enforcement.

Sec. 25.25.602. Procedure to register order for enforcement.
 (a) Except as provided in AS 25.25.707, a support order or income withholding order of another state or a foreign support order may be registered in this state by sending the following records to a tribunal of this state:
     (1) a letter of transmittal to the tribunal requesting registration and enforcement;

     (2) two copies, including one certified copy, of the order to be registered, including any modification of the order;

     (3) a sworn statement by the person requesting registration or a certified statement by the custodian of the records showing the amount of any arrearage;

     (4) the name of the obligor and, if known,
          (A) the obligor’s address and social security number;

          (B) the name and address of the obligor’s employer and any other source of income of the obligor; and

          (C) a description and the location of property in this state of the obligor not exempt from execution; and

     (5) except as otherwise provided in AS 25.25.312, the name and address of the obligee and, if applicable, the person to whom support payments are to be remitted.

 (b) On receipt of a request for registration, the registering tribunal shall file the order as an order of a tribunal of another state or a foreign support order, together with one copy of the documents and information, regardless of their form.

 (c) A complaint or comparable pleading seeking a remedy that must be affirmatively sought under other law of this state may be filed at the same time as the request for registration or later. The pleading must specify the grounds for the remedy sought.

 (d) If two or more orders are in effect, the person requesting registration shall
     (1) furnish to the tribunal a copy of every support order asserted to be in effect in addition to the documents specified in this section;

     (2) specify the order alleged to be the controlling order, if any; and

     (3) specify the amount of consolidated arrears, if any.

 (e) A request for a determination of which is the controlling order may be filed separately or with a request for registration and enforcement or for registration and modification. The person requesting registration shall give notice of the request to each party whose rights may be affected by the determination.




Sec. 25.25.603. Effect of registration for enforcement.
 (a) A support order or income withholding order issued in another state or a foreign support order is registered when the order is filed in the registering tribunal of this state.

 (b) A registered support order issued in another state or a foreign country is enforceable in the same manner and is subject to the same procedures as an order issued by a tribunal of this state.

 (c) Except as otherwise provided in this chapter, a tribunal of this state shall recognize and enforce, but may not modify, a registered support order if the issuing tribunal had jurisdiction.




Sec. 25.25.604. Choice of law.
 (a) Except as otherwise provided in (d) of this section, the law of the issuing state or foreign country governs
     (1) the nature, extent, amount, and duration of current payments under a registered support order;

     (2) the computation and payment of arrearages and accrual of interest on the arrearages under the support order; and

     (3) the existence and satisfaction of other obligations under the support order.

 (b) In a proceeding for arrears under a registered support order, the statute of limitation of this state or of the issuing state or foreign country, whichever is longer, applies.

 (c) A responding tribunal of this state shall apply the procedures and remedies of this state to enforce current support and collect arrears and interest due on a support order of another state or a foreign country registered in this state.

 (d) After a tribunal of this state or another state determines which is the controlling order and issues an order consolidating arrears, if any, a tribunal of this state shall prospectively apply the law of the state or foreign country issuing the controlling order, including its law on interest on arrears, on current and future support, and on consolidated arrears.




Sec. 25.25.605. Notice of registration of order.
 (a) When a support order or income withholding order issued in another state or a foreign support order is registered, the registering tribunal of this state shall notify the nonregistering party. The notice must be accompanied by a copy of the registered order and the documents and relevant information accompanying the order.

 (b) A notice must inform the nonregistering party
     (1) that a registered order is enforceable as of the date of registration in the same manner as an order issued by a tribunal of this state;

     (2) that a hearing to contest the validity or enforcement of the registered order must be requested within 20 days after notice unless the registered order is under AS 25.25.708;

     (3) that failure to contest the validity or enforcement of the registered order in a timely manner will result in confirmation of the order and enforcement of the order and the alleged arrearages and precludes further contest of that order with respect to any matter that could have been asserted; and

     (4) of the amount of alleged arrearages.

 (c) Upon registration of an income withholding order for enforcement, the support enforcement agency or the registering tribunal shall notify the obligor’s employer under AS 25.27.

 (d) If the registering party asserts that two or more orders are in effect, a notice must also
     (1) identify the orders, the order alleged by the registering party to be the controlling order, and the consolidated arrears, if any;

     (2) notify the nonregistering party of the right to a determination of which is the controlling order;

     (3) state that the procedures provided in (b) of this section apply to the determination of which is the controlling order; and

     (4) state that failure to contest the validity or enforcement of the order alleged to be the controlling order in a timely manner may result in confirmation that the order is the controlling order.




Sec. 25.25.606. Procedure to contest validity or enforcement of registered support order.
 (a) A nonregistering party seeking to contest the validity or enforcement of a registered order in this state shall request a hearing within the time required by AS 25.25.605. The nonregistering party may seek to vacate the registration, to assert a defense to an allegation of noncompliance with the registered order, or to contest the remedies being sought or the amount of alleged arrearages under AS 25.25.607.

 (b) If the nonregistering party fails to contest the validity or enforcement of the registered support order in a timely manner, the order is confirmed by operation of law.

 (c) If a nonregistering party requests a hearing to contest the validity or enforcement of the registered order, the registering tribunal shall schedule the matter for hearing and give notice to the parties of the date, time, and place of the hearing.




Sec. 25.25.607. Contest of registration or enforcement.
 (a) A party contesting the validity or enforcement of a registered support order or seeking to vacate the registration has the burden of proving one or more of the following defenses:
     (1) the issuing tribunal lacked personal jurisdiction over the contesting party;

     (2) the order was obtained by fraud;

     (3) the order has been vacated, suspended, or modified by a later order;

     (4) the issuing tribunal has stayed the order pending appeal;

     (5) there is a defense under the law of this state to the remedy sought;

     (6) full or partial payment has been made;

     (7) the statute of limitation under AS 25.25.604 precludes enforcement of some or all of the alleged arrearages; or

     (8) the alleged controlling order is not the controlling order.

 (b) If a party presents evidence establishing a full or partial defense under (a) of this section, the tribunal may stay enforcement of a registered support order, continue the proceeding to permit production of additional relevant evidence, and issue other appropriate orders. An uncontested portion of the registered support order may be enforced by all remedies available under the law of this state.

 (c) If the contesting party does not establish a defense under (a) of this section to the validity or enforcement of a registered support order, the registering tribunal shall issue an order confirming the order.




Sec. 25.25.608. Confirmed order.
Confirmation of a registered support order, whether by operation of law or after notice and hearing, precludes further contest of the order with respect to a matter that could have been asserted at the time of registration.

Sec. 25.25.609. Procedure to register child support order of another state for modification.
If a party or the child support services agency seeks to modify, or to modify and enforce, a child support order issued in another state but not registered in this state, the party or agency shall register that order in this state in the same manner provided in AS 25.25.601 — 25.25.608. A complaint for modification may be filed at the same time as a request for registration, or later. The pleading must specify the grounds for modification.

Sec. 25.25.610. Effect of registration for modification.
A tribunal of this state may enforce a child support order of another state registered for purposes of modification in the same manner as if the order had been issued by a tribunal of this state, but the registered support order may be modified only if the requirements of AS 25.25.611 or 25.25.613 have been met.

Sec. 25.25.611. Modification of child support order of another state.
 (a) If AS 25.25.613 does not apply, upon complaint or comparable pleading, a tribunal of this state may modify a child support order issued in another state that is registered in this state, if, after notice and an opportunity for hearing, the tribunal finds that
     (1) the following requirements are met:
          (A) neither the child, nor the obligee who is an individual, nor the obligor resides in the issuing state;

          (B) a petitioner who is not a resident of this state seeks modification; and

          (C) the respondent is subject to the personal jurisdiction of the tribunal of this state; or

     (2) this state is the residence of the child, or a party who is an individual is subject to the personal jurisdiction of the tribunal, and all of the parties who are individuals have filed consents in a record in the issuing tribunal providing that a tribunal of this state may modify the support order and assume continuing, exclusive jurisdiction.

 (b) Modification of a registered child support order is subject to the same requirements, procedures, and defenses that apply to the modification of an order issued by a tribunal of this state and the order may be enforced and satisfied in the same manner.

 (c) A tribunal of this state may not modify any aspect of a child support order that may not be modified under the law of the issuing state, including the duration of the obligation of support. If two or more tribunals have issued child support orders for the same obligor and child, the order that is controlling and must be recognized under the provisions of AS 25.25.207 establishes the nonmodifiable aspects of the support order.

 (d) On issuance of an order by a tribunal of this state modifying a child support order issued in another state, the tribunal of this state becomes the tribunal of continuing, exclusive jurisdiction.

 (e) In a proceeding to modify a child support order, the law of the state that is determined to have issued the initial controlling order governs the duration of the obligation of support. The obligor’s fulfillment of the duty of support established by that order precludes imposition of a further obligation of support by a tribunal of this state.

 (f) Notwithstanding (a) — (e) of this section and AS 25.25.201(b), a tribunal of this state retains jurisdiction to modify an order issued by a tribunal of this state if
     (1) one party resides in another state; and

     (2) the other party resides outside the United States.




Sec. 25.25.612. Recognition of order modified in another state.
If a child support order issued by a tribunal of this state is modified by a tribunal of another state that assumed jurisdiction under the Uniform Interstate Family Support Act, a tribunal of this state
     (1) may enforce its order that was modified only as to arrears and interest accruing before the modification;

     (2) may provide appropriate relief for violations of its order that occurred before the effective date of the modification; and

     (3) shall recognize the modifying order of the other state, upon registration, for the purpose of enforcement.




Sec. 25.25.613. Jurisdiction to modify support order of another state when individual parties reside in this state.
 (a) If all of the individual parties reside in this state and the child does not reside in the issuing state, a tribunal of this state has jurisdiction to enforce and to modify the issuing state’s child support order in a proceeding to register that order.

 (b) A tribunal of this state exercising jurisdiction as provided in this section shall apply the provisions of AS 25.25.101 — 25.25.209 and 25.25.601 — 25.25.614 to the enforcement or modification proceeding. AS 25.25.301 — 25.25.507, 25.25.702 — 25.25.714, 25.25.801, and 25.25.802 do not apply, and the tribunal shall apply the procedural and substantive law of this state.




Sec. 25.25.614. Notice to issuing tribunal of modification.
Within 30 days after issuance of a modified child support order, the party obtaining the modification shall file a certified copy of the order with the issuing tribunal that had continuing, exclusive jurisdiction over the earlier order and with each tribunal in which the party knows that an earlier order has been registered. Failure of the party obtaining the order to file a certified copy as required subjects that party to appropriate sanctions by a tribunal in which the issue of failure to file arises, but that failure has no effect on the validity or enforceability of the modified order of the new tribunal of continuing, exclusive jurisdiction.

Sec. 25.25.615. Jurisdiction to modify child support order of foreign country.
 (a) Except as otherwise provided in AS 25.25.712, if a foreign country lacks or refuses to exercise jurisdiction to modify its child support order under its laws, a tribunal of this state may assume jurisdiction to modify the child support order and bind all individuals subject to the personal jurisdiction of the tribunal, regardless of whether the consent to modification of a child support order otherwise required of the individual under AS 25.25.611 has been given or the individual seeking modification is a resident of this state or of the foreign country.

 (b) An order issued by a tribunal of this state modifying a foreign child support order under this section is the controlling order.




Sec. 25.25.616. Procedure to register child support order of foreign country for modification.
A party or support enforcement agency seeking to modify, or to modify and enforce, a foreign child support order not under the convention may register that order in this state under AS 25.25.601 — 25.25.608 if the order has not been registered. A complaint or comparable pleading for modification may be filed at the same time as a request for registration, or at another time. The complaint or comparable pleading must specify the grounds for modification.

Article 7. Support Proceedings under Convention.
Sec. 25.25.701. Proceeding to determine parentage [Repealed, § 102 ch 32 SLA 2015.]
Sec. 25.25.702. Definitions.
In AS 25.25.702 — 25.25.714,
     (1) “application” means a request under the convention by an obligee or obligor, or on behalf of a child, made through a central authority for assistance from another central authority;

     (2) “central authority” means the entity designated by the United States or a foreign country described in AS 25.25.101(5)(D) to perform the functions specified in the convention;

     (3) “convention support order” means a support order of a tribunal of a foreign country described in AS 25.25.101(5)(D);

     (4) “direct request” means a complaint or comparable pleading filed by an individual in a tribunal of this state in a proceeding involving an obligee, obligor, or child residing outside the United States;

     (5) “foreign central authority” means the entity designated by a foreign country described in AS 25.25.101(5)(D) to perform the functions specified in the convention;

     (6) “foreign support agreement”
          (A) means an agreement for support in a record that
               (i) is enforceable as a support order in the country of origin;

               (ii) has been formally drawn up or registered as an authentic instrument by a foreign tribunal or authenticated by, or concluded, registered, or filed with, a foreign tribunal; and

               (iii) may be reviewed and modified by a foreign tribunal;

          (B) includes a maintenance arrangement or authentic instrument under the convention;

     (7) “United States central authority” means the United States Secretary of Health and Human Services.




Sec. 25.25.703. Applicability.
AS 25.25.702 — 25.25.714 apply only to a support proceeding under the convention. In such a proceeding, if a provision of AS 25.25.702 — 25.25.714 is inconsistent with AS 25.25.101 — 25.25.616, AS 25.25.702 — 25.25.714 controls.

Sec. 25.25.704. Relationship of child support services agency to United States central authority.
The child support services agency of this state is recognized as the agency designated by the United States central authority to perform specific functions under the convention.

Sec. 25.25.705. Initiation by child support services agency of support proceeding under convention.
 (a) In a support proceeding under AS 25.25.702 — 25.25.714, the child support services agency of this state shall
     (1) transmit and receive applications; and

     (2) initiate or facilitate the institution of a proceeding regarding an application in a tribunal of this state.

 (b) The following support proceedings are available to an obligee under the convention:
     (1) recognition or recognition and enforcement of a foreign support order;

     (2) enforcement of a support order issued or recognized in this state;

     (3) establishment of a support order if there is not an existing order, including, if necessary, determination of parentage of a child;

     (4) establishment of a support order if recognition of a foreign support order is refused under AS 25.25.709(b)(2), (4), or (9);

     (5) modification of a support order of a tribunal of this state; and

     (6) modification of a support order of a tribunal of another state or a foreign country.

 (c) The following support proceedings are available under the convention to an obligor against whom there is an existing support order:
     (1) recognition of an order suspending or limiting enforcement of an existing support order of a tribunal of this state;

     (2) modification of a support order of a tribunal of this state; and

     (3) modification of a support order of a tribunal of another state or a foreign country.

 (d) A tribunal of this state may not require security, bond, or deposit, however described, to guarantee the payment of costs and expenses in proceedings under the convention.




Sec. 25.25.706. Direct request.
 (a) An individual may file a direct request seeking establishment or modification of a support order or determination of parentage of a child. In the proceeding, the law of this state applies.

 (b) An individual may file a direct request seeking recognition and enforcement of a support order or support agreement. In the proceeding, AS 25.25.707 — 25.25.714 apply.

 (c) In a direct request for recognition and enforcement of a convention support order or foreign support agreement,
     (1) a security, bond, or deposit is not required to guarantee the payment of costs and expenses; and

     (2) an obligee or obligor who has benefited from free legal assistance in the issuing country is entitled to benefit, at least to the same extent, from any free legal assistance provided for by the law of this state under the same circumstances.

 (d) An individual filing a direct request is not entitled to assistance from the child support services agency.

 (e) AS 25.25.702 — 25.25.714 do not prevent the application of laws of this state that provide simplified, more expeditious rules regarding a direct request for recognition and enforcement of a foreign support order or foreign support agreement.




Sec. 25.25.707. Registration of convention support order.
 (a) Except as otherwise provided in AS 25.25.702 — 25.25.714, a party who is an individual or a support enforcement agency seeking recognition of a convention support order shall register the order in this state as provided in AS 25.25.601 — 25.25.616.

 (b) Notwithstanding AS 25.25.311 and 25.25.602(a), a request for registration of a convention support order must be accompanied by
     (1) a complete text of the support order or an abstract or extract of the support order drawn up by the issuing foreign tribunal, which may be in the form recommended by the Hague Conference on Private International Law;

     (2) a record stating that the support order is enforceable in the issuing country;

     (3) if the respondent did not appear and was not represented in the proceedings in the issuing country, a record attesting, as appropriate, either that the respondent had proper notice of the proceedings and an opportunity to be heard or that the respondent had proper notice of the support order and an opportunity to be heard in a challenge or appeal on fact or law before a tribunal;

     (4) a record showing the amount of arrears, if any, and the date the amount was calculated;

     (5) a record showing a requirement for automatic adjustment of the amount of support, if any, and the information necessary to make the appropriate calculations; and

     (6) if necessary, a record showing the extent to which the applicant received free legal assistance in the issuing country.

 (c) A request for registration of a convention support order may seek recognition and partial enforcement of the order.

 (d) A tribunal of this state may vacate the registration of a convention support order without the filing of a contest under AS 25.25.708 only if, acting on its own motion, the tribunal finds that recognition and enforcement of the order would be manifestly incompatible with public policy.

 (e) The tribunal shall promptly notify the parties of the registration or the order vacating the registration of a convention support order.




Sec. 25.25.708. Contest of registered convention support order.
 (a) Except as otherwise provided in AS 25.25.702 — 25.25.714, AS 25.25.605 — 25.25.608 apply to a contest of a registered convention support order.

 (b) A party contesting a registered convention support order shall file a contest not later than 30 days after notice of the registration, but if the contesting party does not reside in the United States, the contest must be filed not later than 60 days after notice of the registration.

 (c) If the nonregistering party fails to contest the registered convention support order by the time specified in (b) of this section, the order is enforceable.

 (d) A contest of a registered convention support order may be based only on grounds set out in AS 25.25.709. The contesting party bears the burden of proof.

 (e) In a contest of a registered convention support order, a tribunal of this state
     (1) is bound by the findings of fact on which the foreign tribunal based its jurisdiction; and

     (2) may not review the merits of the order.

 (f) A tribunal of this state deciding a contest of a registered convention support order shall promptly notify the parties of its decision.

 (g) A challenge or appeal, if any, does not stay the enforcement of a convention support order unless there are exceptional circumstances.




Sec. 25.25.709. Recognition and enforcement of registered convention support order.
 (a) Except as otherwise provided in (b) of this section, a tribunal of this state shall recognize and enforce a registered convention support order.

 (b) The following grounds are the only grounds on which a tribunal of this state may refuse recognition and enforcement of a registered convention support order:
     (1) recognition and enforcement of the order is manifestly incompatible with public policy, including the failure of the issuing tribunal to observe minimum standards of due process, which include notice and an opportunity to be heard;

     (2) the issuing tribunal lacked personal jurisdiction consistent with AS 25.25.201;

     (3) the order is not enforceable in the issuing country;

     (4) the order was obtained by fraud in connection with a matter of procedure;

     (5) a record transmitted in accordance with AS 25.25.707 lacks authenticity or integrity;

     (6) a proceeding between the same parties and having the same purpose is pending before a tribunal of this state and that proceeding was the first to be filed;

     (7) the order is incompatible with a more recent support order involving the same parties and having the same purpose if the more recent support order is entitled to recognition and enforcement under this chapter in this state;

     (8) payment, to the extent alleged arrears have been paid, in whole or in part;

     (9) in a case in which the respondent neither appeared nor was represented in the proceeding in the issuing foreign country,
          (A) if the law of that country provides for prior notice of proceedings, the respondent did not have proper notice of the proceedings and an opportunity to be heard; or

          (B) if the law of that country does not provide for prior notice of the proceedings, the respondent did not have proper notice of the order and an opportunity to be heard in a challenge or appeal on fact or law before a tribunal; or

     (10) the order was made in violation of AS 25.25.712.

 (c) If a tribunal of this state does not recognize a convention support order under (b)(2), (4), or (9) of this section,
     (1) the tribunal may not dismiss the proceeding without allowing a reasonable time for a party to request the establishment of a new convention support order; and

     (2) the child support services agency shall take all appropriate measures to request a child support order for the obligee if the application for recognition and enforcement was received under AS 25.25.705.




Sec. 25.25.710. Partial enforcement.
If a tribunal of this state does not recognize and enforce a convention support order in its entirety, it shall enforce any severable part of the order. An application or direct request may seek recognition and partial enforcement of a convention support order.

Sec. 25.25.711. Foreign support agreement.
 (a) Except as otherwise provided in (c) and (d) of this section, a tribunal of this state shall recognize and enforce a foreign support agreement registered in this state.

 (b) An application or direct request for recognition and enforcement of a foreign support agreement must be accompanied by
     (1) a complete text of the foreign support agreement; and

     (2) a record stating that the foreign support agreement is enforceable as an order of support in the issuing country.

 (c) A tribunal of this state may vacate the registration of a foreign support agreement only if, acting on its own motion, the tribunal finds that recognition and enforcement would be manifestly incompatible with public policy.

 (d) In a contest of a foreign support agreement, a tribunal of this state may refuse recognition and enforcement of the agreement if it finds
     (1) recognition and enforcement of the agreement is manifestly incompatible with public policy;

     (2) the agreement was obtained by fraud or falsification;

     (3) the agreement is incompatible with a support order involving the same parties and having the same purpose in this state, another state, or a foreign country if the support order is entitled to recognition and enforcement under this chapter in this state; or

     (4) the record submitted under (b) of this section lacks authenticity or integrity.

 (e) A proceeding for recognition and enforcement of a foreign support agreement must be suspended during the pendency of a challenge to or appeal of the agreement before a tribunal of another state or a foreign country.




Sec. 25.25.712. Modification of convention child support order.
 (a) A tribunal of this state may not modify a convention child support order if the obligee remains a resident of the foreign country where the support order was issued unless
     (1) the obligee submits to the jurisdiction of a tribunal of this state, either expressly or by defending on the merits of the case, without objecting to the jurisdiction at the first available opportunity; or

     (2) the foreign tribunal lacks or refuses to exercise jurisdiction to modify its support order or issue a new support order.

 (b) If a tribunal of this state does not modify a convention child support order because the order is not recognized in this state, AS 25.25.709(c) applies.




Sec. 25.25.713. Personal information; limit on use.
Personal information gathered or transmitted under AS 25.25.702 — 25.25.714 may be used only for the purposes for which it was gathered or transmitted.

Sec. 25.25.714. Record original language; English translation.
A record filed with a tribunal of this state under AS 25.25.702 — 25.25.714 must be in the original language and, if not in English, must be accompanied by an English translation.

Article 8. Interstate Rendition.
Sec. 25.25.801. Grounds for rendition.
 (a) The governor or a designee of the governor may
     (1) demand that the governor of another state surrender an individual found in the other state who is charged criminally in this state with having failed to provide for the support of an obligee; or

     (2) on the demand of the governor of another state, surrender an individual found in this state who is charged criminally in the other state with having failed to provide for the support of an obligee.

 (b) A provision for extradition of individuals not inconsistent with this chapter applies to the demand even if the individual whose surrender is demanded was not in the demanding state when the crime was allegedly committed and has not fled from that state.




Sec. 25.25.802. Conditions of rendition.
 (a) Before making a demand that the governor of another state surrender an individual charged criminally in this state with having failed to provide for the support of an obligee, the governor of this state or the designee of the governor may require a prosecutor of this state to demonstrate that the obligee had initiated proceedings for support under this chapter at least 60 days previously or that the proceeding would be of no avail.

 (b) If, under this chapter or a law substantially similar to this chapter, or the former provisions of this chapter, the governor of another state makes a demand that the governor of this state surrender an individual charged criminally in that state with having failed to provide for the support of a child or other individual to whom a duty of support is owed, the governor or a designee of the governor may require a prosecutor to investigate the demand and report whether a proceeding for support has been initiated or would be effective. If it appears that a proceeding would be effective but has not been initiated, the governor or designee may delay honoring the demand for a reasonable time to permit the initiation of a proceeding.

 (c) If a proceeding for support has been initiated and the individual whose rendition is demanded prevails, the governor or the designee of the governor may decline to honor the demand. If the petitioner prevails and the individual whose rendition is demanded is subject to a support order, the governor or designee may decline to honor the demand if the individual is complying with the support order.




Article 9. Miscellaneous Provisions.
Sec. 25.25.901. Uniformity of application and construction.
In applying and construing this chapter, consideration must be given to the need to promote uniformity of the law with respect to its subject matter among states that enact it.

Sec. 25.25.902. Severability.
Under AS 01.10.030, if a provision of this chapter or its application to a person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of this chapter that can be given effect without the invalid provision or application.

Sec. 25.25.903. Short title.
This chapter may be cited as the Uniform Interstate Family Support Act.

Chapter 27. Child Support Services Agency.

Sec. 25.27.010. Creation of child support services agency.
There is created in the Department of Revenue the child support services agency.

Sec. 25.27.020. Duties and responsibilities of the agency.
 (a) The agency shall
     (1) seek enforcement of child support orders of the state in other jurisdictions and shall obtain, enforce, and administer the orders in this state;

     (2) adopt regulations to carry out the purposes of this chapter and AS 25.25, including regulations that establish
          (A) procedures for hearings conducted under AS 25.27.170 and for administrative enforcement of support orders;

          (B) subject to AS 25.27.025 and to federal law, a uniform rate of interest on arrearages of support that shall be charged the obligor upon notice if child support payments are 10 or more days overdue or if payment is made by a check backed by insufficient funds; however, an obligor may not be charged interest on late payment of a child support obligation, other than a payment on arrearages, if the obligor is
               (i) employed and income is being withheld from the obligor’s wages under an income withholding order;

               (ii) receiving unemployment compensation and child support obligations are being withheld from the obligor’s unemployment payments under AS 23.20.401; or

               (iii) receiving compensation for disabilities under AS 23.30 and child support obligations are being withheld from the obligor’s compensation payments;

          (C) procedures for establishing and disestablishing paternity under AS 25.27.165 and 25.27.166, including procedures for hearings; and

          (D) procedures under which the agency shall enter into contracts or agreements with financial institutions, including brokerage houses, insurance companies, and other companies providing individual investment, transaction, or deposit accounts, doing business in the state to develop and operate an automated data match system as required by 42 U.S.C. 666(a)(17); the agency may pay a reasonable fee to a financial institution for conducting a data match under a contract or agreement under this subparagraph; the fee may not exceed the actual costs incurred by the financial institution for conducting the data match;

     (3) administer and enforce AS 25.25 (Uniform Interstate Family Support Act);

     (4) establish, enforce, and administer child support obligations administratively under this chapter;

     (5) administer the state plan required under 42 U.S.C. 651 — 669 (Title IV-D, Social Security Act) as amended;

     (6) disburse support payments collected by the agency to the obligee, together with interest charged under (2)(B) of this subsection;

     (7) establish and enforce administratively under this chapter, or through the superior courts of the state, child support orders from other jurisdictions pertaining to obligors within the state;

     (8) enforce and administer spousal support orders if a spousal support obligation has been established with respect to the spouse and if the support obligation established with respect to the child of that spouse is also being administered;

     (9) obtain a medical support order that meets the requirements of AS 25.27.060(c) and 25.27.063;

     (10) act on behalf of the Department of Health and Social Services in the enforcement of AS 47.07.025(b);

     (11) establish or disestablish, administratively under AS 25.27.165 — 25.27.166 or through court action, the paternity of a child;

     (12) promptly provide to the Bureau of Vital Statistics, in a format approved by the bureau, any final agency decision administratively establishing or disestablishing the paternity of a child born in this state; and

     (13) act as the central registry for all child support orders and exchange information as required by federal law.

 (b) In determining the amount of money an obligor must pay to satisfy the obligor’s immediate duty of support, the agency shall consider all payments made by the obligor directly to the obligee or to the obligee’s custodian before the time the obligor is ordered to make payments through the agency. After the obligor is ordered to make payments through the agency, the agency may not consider direct payments made to the obligee or the obligee’s custodian unless the obligor provides clear and convincing evidence of the payment.

 (c) If admitted to the practice of law in the state, the director of the agency, or the director’s designee, shall sign a complaint or other pleadings on behalf of the agency in an action to establish or enforce a support obligation under this chapter in which the agency is not represented by the attorney general.

 (d) The agency may issue an administrative order or request a court order that requires an individual in arrears under an order of support for a child who is receiving assistance under AS 47.07, or under AS 47.25.310 — 47.25.420 or a successor program, or for a child whose parent, guardian, or designee of the parent or guardian has applied for aid from the agency under AS 25.27.100, to make payments according to an approved payment plan or, if the individual is not incapacitated, to participate in appropriate work activities.

 (e) To the extent required by federal law and as necessary for locating individuals for child support purposes, the agency, the child support enforcement agency of another state, or the federal government is entitled to have access to information used by the Department of Public Safety or a successor agency to locate an individual for purposes relating to motor vehicles or law enforcement.

 (f) The agency shall, by regulation, establish procedures and standards for the forgiveness of an arrearage owed to the state under AS 25.27.120. The agency may forgive arrears under this section, with the approval of the commissioner and without the approval of the Department of Law, if
     (1) the obligor
          (A) has or obtains employment for which income withholding is initiated under AS 25.27.250 within 60 days after the date the obligor is approved for the forgiveness program;

          (B) enrolls in and successfully completes an employment training program approved by the agency and obtains employment for which income withholding is initiated under AS 25.27.250 within 30 days after completion of the employment training program; or

          (C) enters into an agreement with the agency for alternative payment procedures if the agency determines that there are unusual circumstances justifying a waiver of income withholding;

     (2) the obligor is in compliance with additional requirements and limitations imposed by the agency by regulation to assure that forgiveness of the arrearage is in the best interest of the child and of the state; and

     (3) the obligor makes monthly payments pursuant to a payment agreement approved by the agency; if the obligor misses more than two monthly payments in a calendar year or more than two consecutive payments without approval of the agency for good cause, the obligor is not eligible to continue in the arrears forgiveness program under this section.

 (g) During each year in which an obligor complies with the requirements for the forgiveness of an arrearage under (f) of this section and any regulations adopted by the agency under that subsection, the agency may forgive up to 20 percent of the total arrearage owed to the state under AS 25.27.120, including any interest owed on that debt. For purposes of determining the amount of the forgiveness, the arrears shall be calculated as of the date the obligor is approved for participation in the forgiveness program.

 (h) The agency may establish by regulation requirements and limitations on eligibility in addition to those stated in (f) and (g) of this section.




Sec. 25.27.022. Establishment and enforcement requests from other states.
 (a) The agency may act, under the laws of this state, upon requests from similar state agencies in other states that operate child support enforcement programs under 42 U.S.C. 651 — 669 (Title IV-D Social Security Act) to establish or disestablish paternity and to establish and enforce against obligors within this state support obligations determined in other states.

 (b) Except for requests for assistance made under (c) of this section or AS 25.25.501, requests from child support enforcement agencies in other states shall be made by application containing the information that this state’s agency requires and including written authorization from the requesting state agency and the obligee for this state’s agency to initiate necessary action.

 (c) Requests from a child support agency of another state for assistance in enforcing support orders through high-volume automated administrative enforcement may be made by electronic or other means and must include the information required by 42 U.S.C. 666(a)(14).

 (d) An employer receiving an income withholding order from a child support agency of another state shall comply with the choice of law provisions of AS 25.25.502(d), 25.25.503, and 42 U.S.C. 666(b)(6)(A)(i)(V).




Sec. 25.27.025. Rate of interest.
The rate of interest imposed under AS 25.27.020(a)(2)(B) shall be six percent a year or a lesser rate that is the maximum rate of interest permitted to be imposed under federal law.

Sec. 25.27.030. Establishment of fund.
There is established in the state general fund a continuing, revolving, reserve account to receive collections and make the authorized disbursements of the agency.

Sec. 25.27.040. Determination of paternity.
 (a) The agency may appear on behalf of minor children or their mother or legal custodian or the state and initiate efforts to have the paternity of children born out of wedlock determined by the court. When the agency is a party to a court action in which paternity is contested, it shall request and pay for genetic testing and procedures under AS 25.20.050(e) and may recover the costs of the testing as provided in AS 25.20.050(f).

 (b) The agency may not attempt to establish paternity in any case
     (1) involving incest or forcible rape, unless the mother of the child is legally competent and requests the establishment of paternity; in this paragraph, “forcible rape” means sexual assault in the first degree under AS 11.41.410 or a conviction under a law or ordinance from another jurisdiction with similar elements; “forcible rape” includes adjudications of delinquency for acts with elements similar to AS 11.41.410;

     (2) when legal proceedings for adoption are pending; or

     (3) when it would not be in the best interests of the children or the state.

 (c) When the agency is a party in a court action in which paternity is contested, the agency shall move for a default judgment in a case that meets the conditions specified in AS 25.20.050(g).




Sec. 25.27.045. Determination of support obligation.
The agency may appear in an action seeking an award of support on behalf of a child owed a duty of support, or to enforce a spousal support order if a spousal support obligation has been established and if a support obligation, established with respect to a child of that spouse, is also being administered, and may also appear in an action seeking modification of a support order, decree, or judgment already entered. Action under this section may be undertaken upon application of an obligee, or at the agency’s own discretion if the obligor is liable to the state under AS 25.27.120(a) or (b).

Sec. 25.27.050. Legal assistance.
The agency shall contract with the Department of Law to provide needed legal services.

Sec. 25.27.060. Order of support.
 (a) Unless otherwise provided under AS 25.24.910 or AS 25.27.061, an order of support establishes a relationship by which the custodian of the child is the administrator for the purposes of administering child support on behalf of the child. The court shall carefully consider the need for support, the ability of both parents to meet such support obligations, the extent to which the parents supported the child before divorce, and the economic ability of the parents to pay after separation and divorce. The court shall also consider the effect on the support obligation of a change in custodian. The need of the child for support shall be considered regardless of the sex of the parent awarded custody of the child.

 (b) [Repealed, § 21 ch 126 SLA 1977.]
 (c) In a court or administrative proceeding where the support of a minor child is at issue, the court or agency, as applicable, may order either parent or both parents to pay the amount necessary for support, maintenance, nurture, and education of the child. Regardless of whether a support order for periodic payments is issued, the court or agency shall issue a medical support order, a cash medical support order, or both. The medical support order shall require health care insurance coverage for the child if health care insurance coverage is available to either parent or both parents for the child at a reasonable cost. The court or agency shall consider whether the child is eligible for services through the Indian Health Service or other insurance coverage before ordering either parent or both parents to provide health care coverage through insurance, cash medical support, or other means or a combination of insurance, cash medical support, or other means. The court or agency shall allocate equally the cost of health care insurance for the child between the parents unless there is good cause to allocate the costs unequally. If the obligor has the duty to make periodic payments for non-medical child support, the obligor’s periodic payments shall be decreased by the amount of the other parent’s portion of payments for health insurance ordered by the court or agency and actually paid by the obligor. If the obligor has a duty to make periodic payments for non-medical child support, the periodic payments shall be increased by the obligor’s portion of payments for health insurance if the other parent is ordered to and actually does obtain and pay for insurance. The court or agency shall allocate equally between the parents the cost of reasonable health care expenses not covered by private insurance unless there is good cause to allocate the costs unequally. One parent shall reimburse the other parent for the first parent’s share of the uncovered expenses paid by the parent within 30 days after receipt by the first parent of the bill for the health care, payment verification, and, if applicable, a health insurance statement indicating what portion of the cost is uncovered. The medical support order must meet the requirements of AS 25.27.063. Upon a showing of good cause, the court may order the parents required to pay support to give reasonable security for payments.

 (d) An order for prospective child support may be modified or revoked under AS 25.24.170.




Sec. 25.27.061. Payment of support to 18-year-olds.
A judgment, court order, or order of the agency under this chapter that provides for child support to be paid for the care of an unmarried 18-year-old child who is actively pursuing a high school diploma or an equivalent level of technical or vocational training while living as a dependent with a parent, guardian, or designee of the parent or guardian, may provide for the support to be paid directly to the child upon terms and conditions considered appropriate by the court or agency.

Sec. 25.27.062. Income withholding order for support.
 (a) Unless the court or agency is establishing only a medical support order, a judgment, court order, or order of the agency under this chapter providing for support must contain an income withholding order. Except as provided in (m) of this section, the income withholding order must provide for immediate income withholding if the support order is
     (1) being enforced by the agency and was issued or modified on or after July 8, 1994; or

     (2) not being enforced by the agency and was issued on or after July 8, 1994.

 (b) An income withholding order must direct the obligor, the obligor’s employer, future employer, and any person, political subdivision, or department of the state to withhold money due or to be due the obligor and pay the money to the agency, in an amount determined under (i) of this section. A court that issues a support order on or after July 8, 1994 shall send a copy of the order to the agency.

 (c) Income withholding under a support order that does not require immediate withholding may be initiated under AS 25.27.150 if the support order is being enforced by the agency, or under (d) of this section if the support order is not being enforced by the agency, if
     (1) the obligor requests withholding;

     (2) the payments that the obligor has failed to make within 30 days of the monthly due date specified in the support order are equal to or greater than the support payable for one month; or

     (3) the obligee requests withholding and
          (A) the agency approves the request because all or part of the monthly payment of the obligor has been more than 10 days overdue more than one time in the preceding 12 months or there is reason to believe that the obligor might withdraw assets to avoid payment of support; in this paragraph, “10 days overdue” means occurring 10 days after the monthly due date specified in a support order; or

          (B) the court approves the request for good cause.

 (d) Income withholding under a support order that does not require immediate income withholding and that is not being enforced by the agency may be initiated either by filing a motion with the court and complying with applicable court rules or, if there is a child support arrearage, by making a written request to the agency for immediate income withholding under AS 25.27.150. Application to the agency under this subsection may not, by itself, be construed as a request for other services of the agency. If immediate withholding under this subsection is sought through a motion to the court, the court shall order the beginning of income withholding under this subsection if the court finds that any of the grounds in (c)(1), (2), or (3)(B) of this section is satisfied. It is not a defense to a motion based on (c)(2) of this section that less than one full month’s payment is past due by 30 days if at least one full month’s payment was past due by 30 days on the date the motion was filed. Notice to the obligor of income withholding ordered under this subsection must be given in a manner that complies with court rules. In this subsection, “past due by 30 days” means unpaid 30 days after the monthly due date specified in the support order.

 (e) The agency or the person who obtains an income withholding order under this chapter shall immediately send a copy of the income withholding order, a copy of the relevant provisions of AS 25.27.260 and this section, and an explanation of the effect of the statutes to persons who may owe money to an obligor. These items may be served by certified mail, return receipt requested, or they may be served personally by a process server, except that the agency alternatively may send the items by electronic means. An income withholding order made under this chapter is binding upon a person, employer, political subdivision, or department of the state immediately upon receipt of a copy of the income withholding order. A person receiving an income withholding order shall immediately begin withholding the specified amount from the obligor’s earnings. The amount withheld shall be sent to the agency within seven business days after the date the amount would otherwise have been paid or credited to the obligor. An employer may, for each payment made under an order, deduct $5 from other wages or salary owed to the obligor.

 (f) An employer may not discharge, discipline, or refuse to employ an obligor on the basis of an income withholding order issued under this chapter. If an employer discharges, disciplines, or refuses to employ an obligor because of an income withholding obligation, the court, after notice and hearing, may order reinstatement or restitution to the obligor, or both. A person who violates this subsection or a regulation adopted to implement it, is liable for a civil penalty of not more than $1,000.

 (g) An income withholding order under this chapter has priority over all other attachments, executions, garnishments, or other legal process brought under state law against the same property unless otherwise ordered by the court. An income withholding order is not limited to the wages of an obligor but may include all money owed to the obligor not otherwise exempt by law. Exemptions under AS 09.38 do not apply to income withholdings under this chapter.

 (h) The court may order payment of all court costs that resulted from an income withholding proceeding under this chapter.

 (i) An employer shall, to the extent permitted under 15 U.S.C. 1673(b), withhold the current support obligation from an obligor’s wages, including the obligor’s share, if any, of the premium for health coverage required to be withheld under AS 25.27.063(c)(4). An employer shall withhold additional income, to the extent permitted under 15 U.S.C. 1673(b), from an obligor’s wages for any support arrearage.

 (j) An employer may combine into a single payment to the agency amounts withheld from more than one obligor if the employer specifies the portion of the payment attributable to each obligor and complies with the time deadlines set out in (e) of this section.

 (k) An employer who is withholding income of an obligor under an order that provides that the withheld income shall be paid to the agency shall notify the agency promptly when the obligor gives or receives notice of termination of employment and provide to the agency the obligor’s last known home address and the name and address of the obligor’s new employer, if known. The employer shall keep a record of the order to withhold income from the obligor for three years after the employer notifies the agency that the obligor has terminated employment. If, within that three-year period, the obligor is reemployed by the former employer, the employer shall immediately implement the order against the obligor’s earnings unless the employer has received notice from the agency that the order is no longer applicable to the obligor. If the obligor is reemployed by the former employer after that three-year period, the employer is not required to implement a withholding order against the obligor’s earnings until the employer receives a new order to withhold the obligor’s income under this chapter.

 (l) Unless modified or terminated by the agency or the court, an order to withhold income under this chapter remains in effect, except as provided in (k) of this section, until the support order is satisfied. The agency or court may not terminate or modify an income withholding order solely on the ground that the obligor has paid all arrearages. Upon satisfaction of a support order, if the order is
     (1) being enforced by the agency, the agency shall, within 15 working days, notify all persons served by the agency with the income withholding order that withholding is no longer required; if the agency receives money from an obligor under an income withholding order after the underlying support order has been satisfied and the agency was enforcing the support order at the time it became satisfied, the agency shall immediately return the overpayment to the obligor; if the agency fails to return an overpayment as required under this paragraph, the state is liable to the obligor for the amount of the overpayment, plus interest at the rate of six percent a year, and a person to whom the agency erroneously disbursed the overpayment is liable to the state for the amount disbursed, plus interest at the rate of six percent a year;

     (2) not being enforced by the agency, the obligor shall file a motion in court requesting termination of the withholding order and serve the motion on the obligee; the court shall enter an order terminating the withholding order if the court determines that the support order has been satisfied; the obligor may deliver a copy of the termination order to persons who were served with the income withholding order; when a termination order is entered, the obligee shall, upon request of the obligor, notify the obligor of all persons who have been served with the income withholding order by the obligee.

 (m) An income withholding order described in (a)(1) — (2) of this section is not subject to immediate withholding if the support order is
     (1) being enforced by the agency and the obligor agrees to keep the agency informed of the obligor’s current employer and the availability of employment-related health insurance coverage for the children covered by the support order until the support order is satisfied and
          (A) the agency has entered into its record a written agreement between the obligor and the obligee that provides for an alternative arrangement and income withholding has not been terminated previously and subsequently initiated; the agency must also be a party to an agreement under this paragraph if support has been assigned to the state; or

          (B) the obligor or obligee demonstrates and the agency, in compliance with applicable federal law, finds good cause not to require immediate income withholding because it would not be in the best interests of the child and, in a case involving the modification of a support order, the obligor has made voluntary support payments under a court or agency order and has not been in arrears in an amount equal to the support payable for one month; in this paragraph, “in arrears” means failing to make a support payment within 30 days of the monthly due date specified in the order;

     (2) not being enforced by the agency and the obligor agrees to keep the obligee informed of the obligor’s current employer and the availability of employment-related health insurance coverage for the children covered by the support order until the support order is satisfied and
          (A) the court finds that (i) a written agreement exists between the obligor and the obligee that provides for an alternative arrangement and (ii) income withholding has not been terminated previously and subsequently initiated; the agency must also be a party to an agreement under this paragraph if support has been assigned to the state; or

          (B) the obligor or obligee demonstrates, and the court, in compliance with applicable federal law, finds good cause not to require immediate income withholding because it would not be in the best interests of the child and, in a case involving the modification of a support order, the obligor has made voluntary support payments under a court or agency order and has not been in arrears in an amount equal to the support payable for one month; in this paragraph, “in arrears” means failing to make a support payment within 30 days of the monthly due date specified in the order; or

     (3) an order that involves an obligor who is receiving social security or other disability compensation that includes regular payments to the children who are the subjects of the support order, except to the extent that the payments to the children do not equal the child support due each month.

 (n) In calculating the amount of child support to be withheld under an income withholding order, the agency shall give credit to the obligor for the cost to the obligor of medical and dental insurance for the children and educational payments for the children to the extent that the insurance coverage and educational payments are required in the applicable child support order and are actually paid for by the obligor.




Sec. 25.27.063. Medical support order.
 (a) [Repealed, § 23 ch 106 SLA 2000.]
 (b) If a parent who is required to provide health care coverage under a medical support order is eligible for family health coverage through an employer, the court or agency issuing the medical support order shall send a copy of the medical support order to the employer. If the agency has notice that the parent has changed or will be changing employment and is or will be eligible for family health coverage through the new employer, the agency shall send a copy of the medical support order to the new employer.

 (c) An employer who receives a copy of a medical support order under (b) of this section
     (1) shall allow the employee named in the order to enroll the child under the family coverage without regard to restrictions relating to enrollment periods if the child is otherwise eligible and is not already enrolled under the family coverage;

     (2) shall, if the employee fails to apply for enrollment of a child under (1) of this subsection, enroll the child under the employee’s family coverage upon application by the child’s other parent or custodian, the child support services agency, or the Department of Health and Social Services;

     (3) may not disenroll or eliminate coverage of the child while the employee is still employed by the employer unless the employer has eliminated family health coverage for all of its employees or has received written evidence that
          (A) the employee is no longer required by court order or administrative order to provide the child’s insurance coverage; or

          (B) the child is or will be enrolled in comparable health coverage through another insurer that will take effect not later than the effective date of the disenrollment or elimination of coverage; and

     (4) shall withhold from the employee’s compensation the employee’s share, if any, of premiums for health coverage to the extent permitted under 15 U.S.C. 1673(b) (Consumer Credit Protection Act) and pay the withheld amount to the appropriate insurer; if federal regulations allow the employer to withhold less than the employee’s share of the insurance premium, the employer may withhold the lesser amount and pay it to the appropriate insurer.




Sec. 25.27.065. Waiver of child support.
 (a) A custodian of a child, including a custodial parent, owes a duty to that child to ensure that child support is paid by a noncustodial parent who is obligated to pay it. An agreement to waive past or future child support, made between an obligor and a person who is entitled to receive support on behalf of an obligee, is not enforceable unless
     (1) the agreement is put in writing at the time the agreement is made; and

     (2) the agreement is signed at the time it is made by both the obligor and the person acting for the obligee.

 (b) When the right to receive child support has been assigned to a governmental entity, an agreement under (a) of this section that has not been adopted as an administrative order of the agency is not effective during a period when the obligee is receiving assistance under AS 47.27.

 (c) In a separation, dissolution, or divorce proceeding, a court may not accept a waiver of support by a custodial parent without proof that the custodial parent can support the needs of the child adequately.




Sec. 25.27.070. Order to assign wages for support.
 (a) In a proceeding in which the court has ordered either or both parents to pay for the support of a child, the court may, on its own motion or motion of a party or the agency on behalf of a party, after notice and an opportunity for hearing, order either parent or both parents to assign to the custodian of the child that portion of salary or wages of either parent due them currently and in the future sufficient to pay the amount ordered by the court for the support, maintenance, nurture, and education of the child.

 (b) The order of assignment is binding upon an employer upon service of a copy of the order upon the employer and until further order of the court. The employer may, for each payment made under the order, deduct $1 from other wages or salary owed to the employee.

 (c) The assignment made under court order has priority as against an attachment, execution, or other assignment unless otherwise ordered by the court.

 (d) An employer may not terminate an employee’s employment because wages of the employee are subject to an order under this section.




Sec. 25.27.075. Employment information.
 (a) An employer doing business in the state shall report to the agency the hiring, rehiring, or return to work of each employee. The report shall be made within the time limits set out in (b) of this section. The report must contain the name, address, and social security number of the newly hired employee, the name and address of the employer, and the identifying number assigned to the employer by the United States Department of the Treasury, Internal Revenue Service. Violation of this subsection does not give rise to a private cause of action.

 (b) An employer required to report under (a) of this section shall use the following procedures to make the report:
     (1) if the report is submitted magnetically or electronically, the report shall be made in a format mutually agreed upon by the employer and the agency; an employer reporting under this paragraph shall make two transmissions a month, not less than 12 days nor more than 16 days apart; or

     (2) if the report is not submitted magnetically or electronically, the report shall be made on a United States Department of the Treasury, Internal Revenue Service, W-4 form or, at the option of the employer, on an equivalent form; an employer reporting under this paragraph shall make the report to the agency not later than 20 days after the date of the hiring, rehiring, or return to work of the employee; the report shall be transmitted by the employer by first class mail.

 (c) An employer that does business in this state and that has employees in at least one other state is not required to comply with (a) of this section if, in compliance with the laws of that state, the employer
     (1) submits timely magnetic or electronic reports of hires, rehires, or returns to work to the state directory of new hires of another state in which the employer has employees; and

     (2) has provided written notification of its election under this subsection to the United States Secretary of Health and Human Services.

 (d) In addition to reporting under (a) of this section, an employer of an obligor shall promptly provide to the agency, or the child support enforcement agency of another state, information requested regarding the obligor’s compensation, employment, wages or salary, and occupation.

 (e) An employer may charge $1 to each employee who is reported to the agency under this section to cover the cost of the reporting.

 (f) In addition to other sanctions available under the law, an employer that violates this section is liable for a civil penalty for each failure to meet the requirements of this section of not more than
     (1) $10 for each employee who is newly hired, rehired, or newly returned to work; and

     (2) $100 if the failure is the result of a conspiracy between the employee and the employer not to supply the required report or to supply a false or incomplete report concerning an employee.

 (g) In this section,
     (1) “employee” has the meaning given in 26 U.S.C. 3401(c); “employee” does not include an employee of a federal or state agency performing intelligence or counterintelligence functions if the head of that agency has determined that reporting under this section on the employee could endanger the safety of the employee or compromise an ongoing investigation or intelligence mission;

     (2) “employer” has the meaning given in 26 U.S.C. 3401(d); “employer” includes a governmental entity and a labor organization;

     (3) “labor organization” has the meaning given in 29 U.S.C. 152; “labor organization” includes an entity that is used by the labor organization and another employer to carry out hiring or other requirements described in 29 U.S.C. 158(f)(3) in accordance with an agreement between the labor organization and the other employer.




Sec. 25.27.080. Enforcement of support orders.
 (a) A court order requiring payment of child support shall be modified to order payments be made to the agency upon application.

 (b) The agency on behalf of the custodian or the state shall take all necessary action permitted by law to enforce child support orders, including petitioning the court for orders to aid in the enforcement of child support.

 (c) The determination or enforcement of a duty of support is unaffected by any interference by the custodian of the child with rights of custody or visitation granted by a court. When the agency appears on behalf of a child in an action seeking to establish or enforce support, the court may not adjudicate custody, visitation, or property rights in the same action.

 (d) An order of arrest may not be issued in the enforcement of child support unless the court has reason to believe that the obligor may flee the jurisdiction or unless the obligor has been ordered to appear in the action and has failed to do so.




Sec. 25.27.085. Subpoenas.
 (a) The agency may subpoena persons, books, records, and documents to
     (1) obtain any financial or other information needed to establish, modify, or enforce a child support order;

     (2) determine the paternity of a child under AS 25.27.165; or

     (3) disestablish the paternity of a child under AS 25.27.166.

 (b) An administrative subpoena issued under this section shall be served in the manner provided for service of liens under AS 25.27.240. Proof of service may be completed according to Rule 5, Alaska Rules of Civil Procedure.

 (c) A person who is issued an administrative subpoena shall be provided an opportunity to refuse to comply with it for good cause by filing a request for a conference with the agency in this state in the manner and within the time specified in regulations adopted by the agency. Good cause shall be limited to mistake in identity of the person or to a prohibition under law to release such information.

 (d) After a conference requested under (c) of this section, the agency shall issue an order on the request relating to good cause. If the person continues to refuse to comply with the administrative subpoena, the agency in this state shall issue an order to impose a civil penalty of $10 for each day of noncompliance with the subpoena.

 (e) An order imposing a civil penalty under this section is a final administrative decision and may be appealed under AS 25.27.210.

 (f) This section does not limit the ability of the agency to make other lawful requests for information.

 (g) If a person fails to comply with a subpoena issued under this section, the agency may apply to the court for an order to compel obedience by proceedings for contempt as if the subpoena had been issued by a court.




Sec. 25.27.086. Subpoenas issued by agency of another state.
 (a) If the child support enforcement agency of another state issues a subpoena regarding persons, books, records, or documents in this state, the subpoena must be complied with as if it were issued by this state’s child support services agency if
     (1) the subpoena is for obtaining
          (A) financial or other information needed to establish, modify, or enforce a support order; or

          (B) information needed to determine or disestablish the paternity of a child under the laws of the state in which the subpoena was issued; and

     (2) the issuing agency complied with AS 25.27.085(b).

 (b) The procedures in or adopted under AS 25.27.085(c) and (d) apply to a person who is issued a subpoena described in (a) of this section.

 (c) The child support services agency of this state shall enforce a subpoena described in (a) of this section and shall provide the opportunity for conference and issue any order under AS 25.27.085(c) and (d) on behalf of the issuing agency. AS 25.27.085(e) applies to an order under this subsection.

 (d) The penalties provided in AS 25.27.085 apply regarding a subpoena described in (a) of this section.

 (e) Nothing in this section limits the ability of a child support enforcement agency of another state to make other lawful requests for information in this state.




Sec. 25.27.090. Reducing arrears to judgment. [Repealed, § 24 ch 126 SLA 1977. Formerly AS 47.23.090.]
Sec. 25.27.095. Agency exempt from execution.
Execution may not issue against money held in the fund established under AS 25.27.030.

Sec. 25.27.100. All persons may use agency.
 (a) The agency shall provide aid to any person due child support under the laws of this state upon application. The agency may, by regulation, impose a fee for services provided under this chapter.

 (b) [Repealed, § 148 ch 87 SLA 1997.]




Sec. 25.27.103. Payments to agency.
An obligor shall make child support payments to the agency if the agency is enforcing a duty of child support under AS 25.25 or this chapter. The agency shall disburse that portion of a payment that exceeds the amount of money necessary to satisfy the obligor’s immediate duty of support in accordance with state and federal requirements. The agency may characterize a support payment physically received by the agency through wage withholding during the last five business days of the month as having been received on the first day of the next calendar month if the agency determines that the payment was made in the course of regular wage withholding intended for the next calendar month. The agency shall credit money disbursed under this section toward satisfaction of the obligor’s duty of support.

Sec. 25.27.105. Audit of collections.
Within 30 working days after receipt of a written request from an obligor, the obligor’s legal representative, the obligee, or the obligee’s legal representative, the agency shall provide an audit of all child support payments made by the obligor and received by the agency. The audit shall include the date and amount of each payment, the name of the obligee, and the total amount of arrearages of support past due and amount of unpaid penalties and interest imposed under AS 25.27.020(a)(2)(B). The agency is required to provide only one audit each year for each obligee and obligor under this section.

Sec. 25.27.107. Certification of arrears.
Within 30 days after receipt of a written request from an obligee or an obligee’s personal representative, the agency shall provide the obligee with a document that certifies whether or not the obligor was, at the end of the most recent calendar year,
     (1) in arrears under the support order in an amount more than four times the monthly obligation under the order in cases where a payment schedule has not been established for payment of continuing support and accumulated arrears under the support order; or

     (2) in arrears under a payment schedule in an amount more than four times the monthly obligation under the payment schedule if a payment schedule has been established for payment of continuing support and accumulated arrears under the support order.




Sec. 25.27.110. [Renumbered as AS 25.27.900.]
Sec. 25.27.120. Obligor liable for public assistance furnished obligee.
 (a) An obligor is liable to the state in the amount of assistance granted under AS 47.07 and AS 47.27 to a child to whom the obligor owes a duty of support except that, if a support order has been entered, the liability of the obligor for assistance granted under AS 47.27 may not exceed the amount of support provided for in the support order, and, if a medical order of support has been entered, the liability of the obligor for assistance granted under AS 47.07 may not exceed the amount of support provided for in the medical order of support.

 (b) An obligor is liable to the state in the amount of the cost incurred if the state is maintaining a child to whom the obligor owes a duty of support in a foster home or institution, except that if a support order has been entered, or an agreement for payment of that cost executed between the obligor and the state, the liability of the obligor may not exceed the amount provided in the support order or agreement.

 (c) Within 30 days after the agency knows the identity and address of an obligor who resides in the state and who is liable to the state under this section, the agency shall send written notification by certified mail to the obligor and the obligee of the obligor’s accruing liability and that the obligor shall make child support payments to the agency. The notice required under this subsection must be in clear, concise, and easily readable language. The notice may accompany other communications by the agency.

 (d) If the agency fails to comply with (c) of this section, interest does not accrue on the liability to the state unless a support order or medical support order, as applicable, has been entered.

 (e) The agency’s failure to comply with (c) of this section does not bar an action by the state to recover amounts owed by the obligor.




Sec. 25.27.125. Accounting and disposition of federal receipts and agency collections.
 (a) Federal incentive payments received by the state under 42 U.S.C. 658 shall be deposited in the general fund and the commissioner of administration shall separately account for the payments. The annual estimated balance in the account may be used by the legislature to make appropriations to the Department of Revenue to carry out the purposes of AS 25.27.020.

 (b) The annual estimated balance in the account maintained by the commissioner of administration under AS 37.05.142 may be used by the legislature to make appropriations to the Department of Health and Social Services to carry out the purposes of AS 47.14.100 — 47.14.130 and AS 47.27.




Sec. 25.27.130. Subrogation of state.
 (a) If the obligor is liable to the state under AS 25.27.120(a) or (b), the state is subrogated to the rights of the obligee to
     (1) bring an action in the superior court seeking an order of support;

     (2) proceed under AS 25.27.160 — 25.27.270 to establish a duty of support; or

     (3) enforce by execution, in accordance with AS 25.27.230 — 25.27.270, or otherwise, a support order entered in favor of the obligee.

 (b) To establish or enforce an order of support, including, if applicable, a medical support order, based on the subrogation of the state, the agency is not limited to the amount of assistance being granted to the child.

 (c) The recovery of any amount for which the obligor is liable that exceeds the total assistance granted under AS 47.07 and AS 47.27 shall be paid to the obligee.

 (d) Except as provided in (f) of this section, if the obligee is not receiving assistance under AS 47.07 or AS 47.27 at the time the state recovers money in an action under this section, the recovery of any amount for which the obligor is liable shall be distributed to the obligee for support payments, including medical support payments, that have become due and unpaid since the termination of assistance under AS 47.07 or AS 47.27 under a support order in favor of the obligee.

 (e) After payment to the obligee under (d) of this section, the state may retain an amount not to exceed the total unreimbursed assistance paid on behalf of the obligee under AS 47.07 or AS 47.27.

 (f) Notwithstanding (d) of this section, the state shall, if required under federal law or regulations, distribute amounts recovered through offset of the obligor’s federal tax refund as past due support with first distribution to the state for unpaid support assigned to the state under AS 47.07.025 and AS 47.27.040.




Sec. 25.27.135. Limitation on actions to establish child support obligation.
If the same causes of action concerning a duty of child support are pending concurrently in court and before the agency, the second action filed may be abated upon the motion of a party or the agency. The court or the agency may award full costs and attorney fees to the party prevailing on the abatement motion.

Sec. 25.27.140. Authority and procedures to administratively establish and enforce support obligation.
 (a) If a support order has not been entered, the agency may establish paternity and a duty of support, which may include periodic payments of support, a medical support order, or both, utilizing the procedures prescribed in AS 25.27.160 — 25.27.220 and may enforce a duty of support utilizing the procedure prescribed in AS 25.27.230 — 25.27.270. Action under this subsection may be undertaken upon application of an obligee, or at the agency’s own discretion if the obligor is liable to the state under AS 25.27.120(a) or (b).

 (b) If a support order has been entered, the agency may enforce the support order utilizing the procedures prescribed in AS 25.27.062, 25.27.150, and 25.27.230 — 25.27.270.

 (c) Unless the agency is establishing only a medical support order, a decision of the agency determining a duty of support shall include an income withholding order as provided under AS 25.27.062.




Sec. 25.27.150. Initiation of administrative enforcement of orders; required notice.
 (a) If an arrearage occurs under a support order being enforced by the agency for which immediate income withholding is not required under AS 25.27.062(a) or an application is made to the agency for withholding under AS 25.27.062(d), the agency may execute an income withholding order without prior notice to the obligor. At the time of execution, the agency shall serve a notice of income withholding on the obligor. Notice under this subsection shall be served upon the obligor by certified mail to the obligor’s last known address, and service is complete when the notice is properly addressed, certified, and mailed.

 (b) The notice must state the amount of the overdue support that is owed, if any, and the amount of income that will be withheld.

 (c) The notice shall inform the obligor that income withholding has been ordered and of the procedures to follow if the obligor wishes to contest withholding on the grounds that the withholding is improper due to a mistake of fact. The notice must also inform the obligor of the information that was provided to the employer in the document that ordered the withholding.

 (d) If the obligor requests a hearing, it shall be conducted under the department’s regulations for informal conferences and shall be held within 15 days of the date of the request. The hearing may only be held to determine if there is a mistake of fact that makes the income withholding order improper because the amount of current or overdue support is incorrect, the identity of the obligor is inaccurate, or, for initiated withholding based on AS 25.27.062(c)(3)(A), the alleged facts regarding overdue payments or potential withdrawal of assets are incorrect. The order is not subject to any other legal defenses. It is not a defense to an income withholding order issued under AS 25.27.062(c)(2) that less than one full month’s payment is past due if at least one full month’s payment was past due on the date notice was served under this section.

 (e) The conference officer shall inform the obligor of the informal conference decision either at the informal conference hearing or within 15 days after the hearing.

 (f) If the conference officer determines that withholding will continue, the obligor may request a formal hearing as provided in the department’s regulations.




Sec. 25.27.160. Initiation of administrative action to establish support duty; required notice.
 (a) An action to establish a duty of support authorized under AS 25.27.140(a) is initiated by the agency serving on the alleged obligor a notice and finding of financial responsibility. The notice and finding served under this subsection shall be served personally or by registered, certified, or insured mail, return receipt requested, for restricted delivery only to the person to whom the notice and finding is directed or to the person authorized under federal regulation to receive that person’s restricted delivery mail.

 (b) Except as provided in (c) of this section, the notice and finding of financial responsibility served under (a) of this section must state
     (1) the sum or periodic payments for which the alleged obligor is found to be responsible under this chapter;

     (2) the name of the alleged obligee and the obligee’s custodian;

     (3) that the alleged obligor may appear and show cause in a hearing held by the agency why the finding is incorrect, should not be finally ordered, and should be modified or rescinded, because
          (A) no duty of support is owed; or

          (B) the amount of support found to be owed is incorrect;

     (4) that, if the person served with the notice and finding of financial responsibility does not request a hearing within 30 days, the property and income of the person will be subject to execution under AS 25.27.062 and 25.27.230 — 25.27.270 in the amounts stated in the finding without further notice or hearing.

 (c) If the agency is establishing only medical support, the notice and finding of financial responsibility must state
     (1) that health care insurance shall be provided for the child to whom the duty of support is owed if health care insurance is available to the alleged obligor at a reasonable cost and that the alleged obligor and the other parent shall share equally the cost of the health care insurance and the costs of reasonable health care expenses not covered by insurance;

     (2) the sum of periodic payments of cash medical support for which either parent or both parents are found to be responsible under this chapter;

     (3) the name of the alleged obligee and the obligee’s custodian;

     (4) that the alleged obligor may appear and show cause in a hearing held by the agency why the finding is incorrect, should not be finally ordered, and should be modified or rescinded, because
          (A) no duty of support is owed;

          (B) health care insurance for the child is not available to the alleged obligor at a reasonable cost;

          (C) adequate health care is available to the child through the Indian Health Service or other insurance coverage; or

          (D) there is good cause to allocate the costs of health insurance, cash medical support, or uninsured health care expenses unequally between the parents;

     (5) that, if the person served with the notice under this subsection does not request a hearing within 30 days, a copy of the medical support order will be sent to the person’s employer under AS 25.27.063(b) without further notice or hearing for inclusion of the child in family health coverage if it is available through the person’s employer.




Sec. 25.27.165. Determination of paternity in an administrative proceeding.
 (a) Upon application from a mother, custodian, putative father, or legal custodian of a child, or from a state, the agency may institute administrative proceedings to determine the paternity of a child born out of wedlock.

 (b) In order to initiate a paternity proceeding administratively, the agency shall serve a mother and putative father, as appropriate, with a notice of paternity and financial responsibility. The notice shall be served personally as set out in Rule 4(d), Alaska Rules of Civil Procedure, or by registered, certified, or insured mail, return receipt requested, for restricted delivery only to the person to whom the notice is directed or to the person authorized under federal law to receive that person’s restricted delivery mail. The notice must be accompanied by
     (1) an administrative order requiring that the mother, child, and putative father submit to genetic testing to be arranged by the agency and stating that a party may provide information to show good cause not to order the testing;

     (2) an administrative order requiring the putative father to provide financial information, as defined by the agency in regulation, within 30 days after service of the notice; all financial information provided to the agency under an order under this paragraph shall be held confidential by the agency, according to any applicable regulations; and

     (3) a notice of right to informal conference, to be held within 20 days after receipt of an admission of paternity or service upon the parties of genetic test results.

 (c) A person served with a notice of paternity and financial responsibility and accompanying orders under (b) of this section shall file a response, admitting or denying paternity and providing the required financial information, within 30 days after the date of service of the notice of paternity and financial responsibility. If the putative father admits paternity, the agency shall issue, within 20 days after the admission of paternity, a decision establishing paternity. If the putative father denies paternity, the putative father shall submit to genetic testing, as provided in (b) of this section, within 45 days after the date of service of the notice of paternity and financial responsibility. If the putative father fails to file a response or fails to comply with an accompanying order within the time and in the manner required in this subsection, the agency may issue a decision by default establishing paternity and financial responsibility, except that, if the proceeding was instituted at the request of the putative father, the agency shall dismiss the proceeding without prejudice.

 (d) Upon receipt of genetic test results, the agency shall serve on the putative father notice of the test results and of the date for the informal conference. Service of the notice shall be made by first class mail. If the genetic test results are negative under the standard set in AS 25.20.050(d), the agency shall issue a finding of nonpaternity within 20 days after the agency’s receipt of the test results. If the genetic test results are positive under the standard set in AS 25.20.050(d), the agency shall issue an informal conference decision within 20 days after the agency’s receipt of the test results. Upon request and advance payment by a party, the agency shall order additional genetic tests. If the second genetic test results contradict the first genetic test results, the agency shall provide copies of the second genetic test results to the parties and conduct another informal conference. The agency shall issue the second informal conference decision within 20 days after the agency’s receipt of the second genetic test results.

 (e) If the agency issues a decision establishing paternity under (d) of this section, the putative father is entitled to a formal hearing if a written request for hearing is served on the agency by certified mail, return receipt requested, within 30 days after the date of service of the agency’s decision.

 (f) If a request for a formal hearing is made under (e) of this section, an execution under AS 25.27.062 and 25.27.230 — 25.27.270 may not be stayed unless the putative father posts security or a bond in the amount of child support that would have been due under the informal conference decision pending the decision on the formal hearing. If no request for a formal hearing is made under (e) of this section, the informal conference decision establishing paternity is final.

 (g) If a request for a formal hearing is made under (e) of this section, the hearing officer shall consider the evidence applying the standards set in AS 25.20.050(d).

 (h) If a putative father who requests a formal hearing under (e) of this section fails to appear at the formal hearing, the hearing officer shall enter a final decision establishing paternity.

 (i) The agency may recover any costs it pays for genetic tests required by this section from the putative father unless the testing establishes that the individual is not the father, except that costs may not be recovered from a person who is a recipient of cash assistance or self-sufficiency services under AS 47.27 (Alaska temporary assistance program). For purposes of this subsection, a person who receives a diversion payment and self-sufficiency services under AS 47.27.026 is not considered to be a recipient of cash assistance or self-sufficiency services under AS 47.27.

 (j) A decision establishing paternity or an admission of paternity under this section must include the social security numbers, if ascertainable, of the father, mother, and the child.

 (k) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, if the agency determines, after considering the best interests of the child, that good cause exists not to order genetic testing under this section, it shall, without ordering the genetic testing and as the agency determines appropriate in the best interests of the child,
     (1) end the administrative proceedings under this section without making a determination of paternity; or

     (2) after a hearing provided for under regulations adopted by the agency, enter a final decision regarding paternity.




Sec. 25.27.166. Disestablishment of paternity.
 (a) The agency shall, by regulation, establish procedures and standards for the disestablishment of paternity of a child whose paternity was established in this state other than by court order if the paternity was not established by
     (1) genetic test results that met the standard set out in AS 25.20.050(d) at the time the test was performed; or

     (2) an acknowledgment of paternity under AS 25.20.050 or an admission of paternity under AS 25.27.165.

 (b) The agency’s standards and procedures under (a) of this section must
     (1) allow a person to petition the agency to disestablish paternity only once per child;

     (2) allow a petition to disestablish paternity to be brought only within three years after the child’s birth or three years after the petitioner knew or should have known of the father’s putative paternity of the child, whichever is later; and

     (3) provide standards and notice and hearing procedures that are equivalent to those used for establishment of paternity under AS 25.27.165.

 (c) The agency shall disestablish paternity under this section if genetic test results are negative under the standard set out in AS 25.20.050(d) and if the other standards established in its regulations are met.

 (d) If a decision under this section disestablishes paternity, the petitioner’s child support obligation or liability for public assistance under AS 25.27.120 is modified retroactively to extinguish arrearages for child support and accrued liability for public assistance based on the alleged paternity that is disestablished under this section. This subsection may be implemented only to the extent not prohibited by federal law.

 (e) The costs of genetic testing under this section shall be assessed against the petitioner if paternity is not disestablished. If paternity is disestablished under this section, the costs of genetic testing shall be assessed against
     (1) the individual to whom the petitioner paid or owed child support payments for the child for whom paternity was disestablished; or

     (2) the agency if there is no individual who meets the description in (1) of this subsection.




Sec. 25.27.167. Contempt of order for genetic testing.
 (a) If a person who is located in this state fails to comply with an order for genetic testing issued by the agency in this state, or the tribunal of another state, the agency in this state may certify the facts to the superior court of this state.

 (b) Upon certification under (a) of this section, the court shall issue an order directing the person to appear and show cause why the person should not be punished for contempt. The order and a copy of the certified statement shall be served on the person in the manner required for service of court orders to show cause.

 (c) After service under (b) of this section, the court has jurisdiction of the matter brought under this section.

 (d) The law of this state applicable to contempt of a court order applies to a proceeding for contempt of an order for genetic testing brought under this section.




Sec. 25.27.170. Hearings in administrative action to establish support duty.
 (a) A person served with a notice and finding of financial responsibility is entitled to a hearing if a request in writing for a hearing is served on the agency by registered mail, return receipt requested, within 30 days of the date of service of the notice of financial responsibility.

 (b) If a request for a formal hearing under (a) of this section is made, the execution under AS 25.27.062 and 25.27.230 — 25.27.270 may not be stayed unless the obligor posts security or a bond in the amount of child support that would have been due under the finding of financial responsibility pending the decision on the hearing. If no request for a hearing is made, the finding of responsibility is final at the expiration of the 30-day period.

 (c) If a hearing is requested, it shall be held within 30 days of the date of service of the request for hearing on the agency.

 (d) Except as provided in (g) of this section, the hearing officer shall determine the amount of periodic payments necessary to satisfy the past, present, and future liability of the alleged obligor under AS 25.27.120, if any, and under any duty of support imposable under the law. The amount of periodic payments determined under this subsection is not limited by the amount of any public assistance payment made to or for the benefit of the child.

 (e) The hearing officer shall consider the following in making a determination under (d) of this section:
     (1) the needs of the alleged obligee, disregarding the income or assets of the custodian of the alleged obligee;

     (2) the amount of the alleged obligor’s liability to the state under AS 25.27.120 if any;

     (3) the intent of the legislature that children be supported as much as possible by their natural parents;

     (4) the ability of the alleged obligor to pay.

 (f) Except as provided in (g) of this section, if the alleged obligor requesting the hearing fails to appear at the hearing, the hearing officer shall enter a decision declaring the property and income of the alleged obligor subject to execution under AS 25.27.062 and 25.27.230 — 25.27.270 in the amounts stated in the notice and finding of financial responsibility.

 (g) If the agency is establishing only a medical support order, the hearing officer shall enter a decision about the parents’ respective responsibilities for the child’s health care expenses that complies with the requirements of AS 25.27.060(c).




Sec. 25.27.180. Administrative findings and decision.
 (a) Within 20 days after the date of the hearing, the hearing officer shall adopt findings and a decision determining whether paternity is established and whether a duty of support exists, and, if a duty of support is found, the decision must specify
     (1) unless a medical support order only is being established, the amount of periodic payments or sum for which the alleged obligor is found to be responsible; and

     (2) the parents’ respective responsibilities for the costs of the child’s health care; this medical support order must be in compliance with AS 25.27.060(c).

 (b) Liability to the state under AS 25.27.120 is limited to the amount for which the obligor is found to be responsible under (a) of this section.

 (c) A decision regarding support rendered under (a) of this section is modified to the extent that a subsequent order, judgment, or decree of a superior court is inconsistent with the decision entered under (a) of this section.




Sec. 25.27.190. Modification of administrative finding or decision.
 (a) Unless a support order has been entered by a court and except as provided in AS 25.25, the obligor, or the obligee or the obligee’s custodian, may petition the agency or its designee for a modification of the administrative finding or decision of responsibility previously entered with regard to future periodic support payments. In addition, the agency may initiate a modification and grant a hearing under (c) — (e) of this section.

 (b) The agency shall grant a hearing upon a petition made under (a) of this section if affidavits submitted with the petition make a showing of good cause and material change in circumstances sufficient to justify action under (e) of this section.

 (c) If a hearing is granted, the agency shall serve a notice of hearing together with a copy of any petition and affidavits submitted on the obligee or the obligee’s custodian and the obligor personally or by registered, certified, or insured mail, return receipt requested, for restricted delivery only to the person to whom the notice is directed or to the person authorized under federal regulation to receive that person’s restricted delivery mail.

 (d) A hearing shall be set not less than 15 nor more than 30 days from the date of mailing of notice of hearing, unless extended for good cause.

 (e) Modification or termination of future periodic support payments may be ordered upon a showing of good cause and material change in circumstances. The adoption or enactment of guidelines or a significant amendment to guidelines for determining child support is a material change in circumstances, if the guidelines are relevant to the petition. As necessary to comply with 42 U.S.C. 666, a periodic modification of child support may be made without a showing of a material change in circumstances if the child support order being modified on the periodic basis has not been modified or adjusted during the three years preceding the periodic modification.




Sec. 25.27.193. Periodic review or adjustment of support orders.
As necessary to comply with 42 U.S.C. 666, the agency, by regulation, shall provide procedures and standards for the modification, through a three-year cycle of review or adjustment, of a support order. Regulations adopted under this section must include procedures for periodic notice of the right to request review, procedures for hearings, and standards for adjustments regarding future periodic support payments. A modification under this section may be made without a showing of a material change in circumstances.

Sec. 25.27.194. Processing time for modification of support orders.
The agency shall use its best efforts to process modifications of support orders under AS 25.27.190 and 25.27.193 in a manner that will result in the same average processing time for modifications that increase obligors’ responsibilities as for modifications that decrease obligors’ responsibilities.

Sec. 25.27.195. Relief from administrative order.
 (a) A clerical mistake in an administrative order issued by the agency or an error arising from an oversight or omission by the agency may be corrected by the agency at any time.

 (b) The agency may, at any time, vacate an administrative support order issued by the agency under AS 25.27.160 that was based on a default amount rather than on the obligor’s actual ability to pay.

 (c) Before an order may be corrected or vacated under (a) or (b) of this section, the agency must send notice of the intended action to the obligor and the custodian and provide an adequate opportunity for the obligor and custodian to be heard on the issue.

 (d) If an order is vacated under (b) of this section, the agency may at the same time issue a new order establishing a support amount, based on information about the obligor’s income or on the Alaska average wage standard, for periods of time covered by the previous order. Upon issuance of the new order, the agency may adjust the obligor’s account to reflect the support amounts established in the new order. In no case may the agency adjust the obligor’s account below zero.




Sec. 25.27.200. Use of standards in administrative determinations of support amounts.
In making its findings under AS 25.27.160 and in establishing and modifying amounts of periodic support payments under AS 25.27.180 and 25.27.190, the agency shall consider the standards adopted by regulation under AS 25.27.020 and any standards for determination of support payments used by the superior court of the district of residence of the obligor.

Sec. 25.27.210. Judicial review of administrative decisions and actions.
 (a) Judicial review by the superior court of a final administrative decision establishing or disestablishing paternity and establishing or modifying a duty of support or amounts of support due may be obtained by filing a notice of appeal in accordance with the applicable rules of court governing appeals in civil matters. A notice of appeal shall be filed within 30 days after the decision.

 (b) The complete record of the proceedings, or the parts of it that the appellant designates, shall be prepared by the agency. A copy shall be delivered to all parties participating in the appeal. The original shall be filed in the superior court within 30 days after the appellant pays the estimated cost of preparing the complete or designated record or files a corporate surety bond equal to the estimated cost.

 (c) The complete record includes
     (1) the notice and finding of financial responsibility, the notice of paternity and financial responsibility, or the notice of and petition for an action disestablishing paternity, as applicable;

     (2) the request for a hearing;

     (3) the decision of the hearing officer;

     (4) the exhibits admitted or rejected;

     (5) the written evidence;

     (6) all other documents in the case, including decisions of the agency.

 (d) Upon order of the superior court, appeals may be taken on the original record or parts of it. The record may be typewritten or duplicated by any standard process. Analogous rules of court governing appeals in civil matters shall be followed when this chapter is silent, and when not in conflict with this chapter.

 (e) The superior court may enjoin agency action in excess of constitutional or statutory authority at any stage of an agency proceeding. If agency action is unlawfully or unreasonably withheld, the superior court may compel the agency to initiate action.




Sec. 25.27.220. Procedure in judicial reviews.
 (a) An appeal shall be heard by the superior court sitting without a jury.

 (b) Inquiry in an appeal extends to the following questions: (1) whether the agency has proceeded without or in excess of jurisdiction; (2) whether there was a fair hearing; and (3) whether there was a prejudicial abuse of discretion. Abuse of discretion is established if the agency has not proceeded in the manner required by law, the order or decision is not supported by the findings, or the findings are not supported by the evidence.

 (c) The court may exercise its independent judgment on the evidence. If it is claimed that the findings are not supported by the evidence, abuse of discretion is established if the court determines that the findings are not supported by
     (1) the weight of the evidence; or

     (2) substantial evidence in the light of the whole record.

 (d) The court may augment the agency record in whole or in part, or hold a hearing de novo. If the court finds that there is relevant evidence which, in the exercise of reasonable diligence, could not have been produced or which was improperly excluded at the hearing, the court may
     (1) enter judgment as provided in (e) of this section and remand the case to be reconsidered in the light of that evidence; or

     (2) admit the evidence at the appellate hearing without remanding the case.

 (e) The court shall enter judgment setting aside, modifying, remanding, or affirming the decision, without limiting or controlling in any way the discretion legally vested in the agency.

 (f) The court in which proceedings under this section are started may stay the operation of the decision until
     (1) the court enters judgment;

     (2) a notice of further appeal from the judgment is filed; or

     (3) the time for filing the notice of appeal expires.

 (g) A stay may not be imposed or continued if the court is satisfied that it is against the public interest.

 (h) If further appeal is taken, the supreme court may, in its discretion, stay the superior court judgment or agency order.




Sec. 25.27.225. Support payment obligations as judgments.
A support order ordering a noncustodial parent obligor to make periodic support payments to the custodian of a child is a judgment that becomes vested when each payment becomes due and unpaid. The custodian of the child, or the agency on behalf of that person, may take legal action under AS 25.27.226 to establish a judgment for support payments ordered by a court of this state that are delinquent.

Sec. 25.27.226. Collection of past due support.
To collect the payment due, the custodian of a child, or the agency on behalf of that person, shall file with the court (1) a motion requesting establishment of a judgment; (2) an affidavit that states that one or more payments of support are 30 or more days past due and that specifies the amounts past due and the dates they became past due; and (3) notice of the obligor’s right to respond. Service on the obligor must be in the manner provided in AS 25.27.265. The child’s custodian, or the agency on behalf of the custodian, shall file with the court proof of service of the petition, affidavit, and notice. The obligor shall respond no later than 15 days after service by filing an affidavit with the court. If the obligor’s affidavit states that the obligor has paid any of the amounts claimed to be delinquent, describes in detail the method of payment or offers any other defense to the petition, then the obligor is entitled to a hearing. After the hearing, if any, the court shall enter a judgment for the amount of money owed. If the obligor does not file an affidavit under this section, the court shall enter a default judgment against the obligor.

Sec. 25.27.227. Nature of remedies.
AS 25.27.225 and 25.27.226 provide remedies in addition to and not as a substitute for any other remedies available to the parties.

Sec. 25.27.228. Court costs.
The court may order an obligor to pay all court costs involved in a proceeding resulting in a court order described in AS 25.27.225, and in a proceeding under AS 25.27.226.

Sec. 25.27.230. Assertion, recording, and effect of lien.
 (a) The agency shall assert a lien upon the real or personal property of the obligor in the amount of the obligor’s liability if an arrearage occurs under a support order being enforced by the agency.

 (b) A lien recorded under this section has no effect against earnings, or bank deposits or balances, unless it states the amount of the obligor’s liability under this chapter and unless the lien is served in accordance with AS 25.27.240.

 (c) The lien shall attach to all real and personal property of the obligor and be effective on the date of recording of the lien with the recorder of the recording district in which the property attached is located. A lien against earnings shall attach and be effective upon filing with the recorder of the recording district in which the employer does business or maintains an office or agent for the purpose of doing business. A lien filed at the offices of the Commercial Fisheries Entry Commission in Juneau against a limited entry permit issued under AS 16.43 is considered to have been filed against the permit in all recording districts in which the permit holder uses the permit.

 (d) Whenever a lien has been recorded under this section and there is in the possession of any person, political subdivision, or department of the state having actual notice of the lien any property that may be subject to the lien, that property may not be paid over, released, sold, transferred, encumbered, or conveyed unless
     (1) a written release or waiver signed by a representative of the agency has been delivered to the person, political subdivision, or department of the state; or

     (2) a decision has been made in a hearing held under AS 25.27.170 or by a superior court ordering release of the lien on the grounds that no debt exists or that the debt has been satisfied.

 (e) A lien arising in another state under the child support laws of that state shall be given full faith and credit in this state. The lien may be asserted in this state upon the real or personal property of the obligor in the amount of the obligor’s liability by complying with the requirements of this section.

 (f) A lien recorded under this section is a judgment lien and may be enforced by execution under AS 09.35 in the full amount of the obligor’s liability at the time of execution.




Sec. 25.27.240. Service of lien.
 (a) The agency of this state or another state, or a party or other entity seeking to enforce a child support obligation, may, at any time after recording of a lien recorded under AS 25.27.230, serve a copy of the lien upon any person, political subdivision, or department of the state possessing earnings, or deposits or balances held in any bank account of any nature that are due, owing, or belonging to the obligor.

 (b) A lien recorded under AS 25.27.230 shall be served upon a person, political subdivision, or department of the state personally or by registered, certified, or insured mail, return receipt requested.




Sec. 25.27.244. Adverse action against delinquent obligor’s occupational license.
 (a) The agency shall compile and maintain a list of obligors who are not in substantial compliance with a support order or payment schedule negotiated under (g)(1) of this section. The agency may not include an obligor on the list unless the agency has sent to the obligor, at the obligor’s most recent address on file with the agency, written notice of the arrearages at least 60 days before placement on the list. The list must include the names, social security numbers, dates of birth, and last known addresses of the persons. The list shall be updated by the agency on a monthly basis.

 (b) The agency shall, on a monthly basis, provide a copy of the list to each licensing entity through a computer readable magnetic medium. A licensing entity subject to this section shall implement procedures to accept and process the list. Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, a licensing entity may not issue or renew a license for a person on the list except as provided in this section.

 (c) Promptly after receiving an application from an applicant and before issuing or renewing a license, a licensing entity, other than one issuing commercial crewmember fishing licenses, shall determine whether the applicant is on the most recent list provided by the agency. If the applicant is on the list, the licensing entity shall immediately serve notice under (e) of this section of the licensing entity’s intent to withhold issuance or renewal of the license. The notice shall be considered given when delivered personally to the applicant or deposited in the United States mail addressed to the applicant’s last known mailing address on file with the licensing entity.

 (d) Other than for a commercial crewmember fishing license, a licensing entity shall issue a temporary license valid for a period of 150 days to an applicant whose name is on the list if the applicant is otherwise eligible for a license. The temporary license may not be extended. Only one temporary license may be issued during a regular license term and its validity shall coincide with the first 150 days of that license term. A license for the full or remainder of the license term may be issued or renewed only upon compliance with this section. If a license or application is denied under this section, money paid by the applicant or licensee shall be refunded by the licensing entity after retention of the temporary license fee, if any.

 (e) Notices for use under (c) and (r) of this section shall be developed by each licensing entity under guidelines provided by the agency and are subject to approval by the agency. The notice must include the address and telephone number of the agency and shall emphasize the necessity of obtaining a release from the agency as a condition for the issuance or renewal of a license. The notice must inform an applicant whose license is governed by (d) of this section that the licensing entity shall issue a temporary license for 150 calendar days under (d) of this section if the applicant is otherwise eligible and that, upon expiration of that time period, the license will be denied unless the licensing entity has received a release from the agency. The agency shall also develop a form that the applicant may use to request a review by the agency. A copy of this form shall be included with each notice sent under (c) or (r) of this section.

 (f) The agency shall establish review procedures consistent with this section to allow an applicant to have the underlying arrearages and relevant defenses investigated, to provide an applicant information on the process of obtaining a modification of a support order, or to provide an applicant assistance in the establishment of a payment schedule on arrearages if the circumstances warrant.

 (g) If the applicant wishes to challenge being included on the list, the applicant shall submit to the agency a written request for review within 30 days after receiving the notice under (c) or (r) of this section by using the form developed under (e) of this section. Within 30 days after receiving a written request for review, the agency shall inform the applicant in writing of the agency’s findings. The agency shall immediately send a release to the appropriate licensing entity and the applicant if any of the following conditions is met:
     (1) the applicant is found to be in substantial compliance with each support order applicable to the applicant or has negotiated an agreement with the agency for a payment schedule on arrearages and is in substantial compliance with the negotiated agreement; if the applicant fails to be in substantial compliance with an agreement negotiated under this paragraph, the agency shall send to the appropriate licensing entity a revocation of any release previously sent to the entity for that applicant;

     (2) the applicant has submitted a timely request for review to the agency, but the agency will be unable to complete the review and send notice of findings to the applicant in sufficient time for the applicant to file a timely request for judicial relief within the 150-day period during which the applicant’s temporary license is valid under (d) of this section; this paragraph applies only if the delay in completing the review process is not the result of the applicant’s failure to act in a reasonable, timely, and diligent manner upon receiving notice from the licensing entity that the applicant’s name is on the list;

     (3) the applicant has, within 30 days after receiving the agency’s findings following a request for review under (2) of this subsection, filed and served a request for judicial relief under this section, but a resolution of that relief will not be made within the 150-day period of the temporary license under (d) of this section; this paragraph applies only if the delay in completing the judicial relief process is not the result of the applicant’s failure to act in a reasonable, timely, and diligent manner upon receiving the agency’s notice of findings; or

     (4) the applicant has obtained a judicial finding of substantial compliance.

 (h) An applicant is required to act with diligence in responding to notices from the licensing entity and the agency with the recognition that the temporary license granted under (d) of this section will lapse after 150 days and that the agency and, where appropriate, the court must have time to act within that 150-day period. An applicant’s delay in acting, without good cause, that directly results in the inability of the agency to complete a review of the applicant’s request or the court to hear the request for judicial relief within the required period does not constitute the diligence required under this section that would justify the issuance of a release.

 (i) Except as otherwise provided in this section, the agency may not issue a release if the applicant is not in substantial compliance with the order for support or with an agreement negotiated under (g)(1) of this section. The agency shall notify the applicant in writing that the applicant may request any or all of the following: (1) judicial relief from the agency’s decision not to issue a release or the agency’s decision to revoke a release under (g)(1) of this section; (2) a judicial determination of substantial compliance; (3) a modification of the support order. The notice must also contain the name and address of the court in which the applicant may file the request for relief and inform the applicant that the applicant’s name shall remain on the list if the applicant does not request judicial relief within 30 days after receiving the notice. The applicant shall comply with all statutes and rules of court implementing this section. This section does not limit an applicant’s authority under other law to request an order to show cause or notice of motion to modify a support order or to fix a payment schedule on arrearages accruing under a support order or to obtain a court finding of substantial compliance with a support order or a court finding of compliance with subpoenas and warrants described in (a) of this section.

 (j) A request for judicial relief from the agency’s decision must state the grounds on which relief is requested, and the judicial action shall be limited to those stated grounds. Judicial relief under this subsection is not an appeal and shall be governed by court rules adopted to implement this section. Unless otherwise provided by court rule, the court shall hold an evidentiary hearing within 20 calendar days after the filing of service on the opposing party. The court’s decision shall be limited to a determination of each of the following issues, as applicable:
     (1) whether there is a support order or a payment schedule on arrearages;

     (2) whether the petitioner is the obligor covered by the support order; and

     (3) whether the obligor is in substantial compliance with the support order or payment schedule.

 (k) If the court finds that the person requesting relief is in substantial compliance with the support order or payment schedule, the agency shall immediately send a release under (g) of this section to the appropriate licensing entity and the applicant.

 (l) If an applicant is in substantial compliance with a support order or payment schedule, the agency shall mail to the applicant and the appropriate licensing entity a release stating that the applicant is in substantial compliance. The receipt of a release shall serve to notify the applicant and the licensing entity that, for the purposes of this section, the applicant is in substantial compliance with the support order or payment schedule unless the agency, under (a) of this section, certifies subsequent to the issuance of a release that the applicant is once again not in substantial compliance with a support order or payment schedule.

 (m) The agency may enter into interagency agreements with the state agencies that have responsibility for the administration of licensing entities as necessary to implement this section to the extent that it is cost effective to implement the interagency agreements. The agreements shall provide for the receipt by the other state agencies and licensing entities of federal money to cover that portion of costs allowable in federal law and regulation and incurred by the state agencies and licensing entities in implementing this section.

 (n) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the licensing entities subject to this section shall assess a fee for issuance of a temporary license under this section. The licensing entity shall set the amount of the fee so that the fees collected under this section, to the extent reasonable, cover the costs of implementing and administering this section.

 (o) The process described in (g) of this section is the sole administrative remedy for contesting the issuance to the applicant of a temporary license or the denial of a license under this section. The procedures specified in AS 44.62.330 — 44.62.630 do not apply to the denial or failure to issue or renew a license under this section.

 (p) The agency and licensing entities, as appropriate, shall adopt regulations necessary to implement this section.

 (q) Notwithstanding any provision of AS 16, a commercial crewmember fishing license described in (s)(2)(A)(xvi) of this section issued to an individual whose name is on the list is void and invalid, and the individual is subject to criminal sanctions for conducting the activities for which such a license is required. The licensing entity for commercial crewmember fishing licenses shall print a notice on commercial crewmember fishing license forms stating the provisions of this subsection.

 (r) After receiving information, including information from a licensing agent appointed under AS 16.05.380, that a commercial crewmember fishing license has been issued to an applicant, the licensing entity for the license shall promptly determine whether the applicant was, at the time the applicant obtained the license, on the most recent list provided by the agency under (b) of this section. If the applicant was on that list, the licensing entity shall immediately serve notice under (e) of this section that the license is void and invalid and that, notwithstanding the limitation of (d) of this section, the applicant can request the licensing entity to issue a temporary license under this section. A notice under this subsection is considered given when delivered personally to the applicant or deposited in the United States mail addressed to the applicant’s last known mailing address on file with the licensing entity.

 (s) In this section,
     (1) “applicant” means a person applying for issuance or renewal of a license;

     (2) “license”
          (A) means, except as provided in (B) of this paragraph, a license, certificate, permit, registration, or other authorization that, at the time of issuance, will be valid for more than 150 days and that may be acquired from a state agency to perform an occupation, including the following:
               (i) license relating to boxing or wrestling under AS 05.10;

               (ii) authorization to perform an occupation regulated under AS 08;

               (iii) teacher certificate under AS 14.20;

               (iv) authorization under AS 18.08 to perform emergency medical services;

               (v) asbestos worker certification under AS 18.31;

               (vi) boiler operator’s license under AS 18.60.395;

               (vii) certificate of fitness under AS 18.62;

               (viii) hazardous painting certification under AS 18.63;

               (ix) security guard license under AS 18.65.400 — 18.65.490;

               (x) license relating to insurance under AS 21.27;

               (xi) employment agency permit under AS 23.15.330 — 23.15.520;

               (xii) registration as a broker-dealer, an agent, an investment adviser, or an investment adviser representative under AS 45.56.300 — 45.56.350;

               (xiii) certification as a pesticide applicator under AS 46.03.320;

               (xiv) certification as a storage tank worker or contractor under AS 46.03.375;

               (xv) certification as a water and wastewater works operator under AS 46.30;

               (xvi) commercial crewmember fishing license under AS 16.05.480 other than an entry permit or interim-use permit under AS 16.43;

               (xvii) fish transporter permit under AS 16.05.671;

               (xviii) [Repealed, § 5 ch 30 SLA 2016.]
               (xix) [Repealed, § 5 ch 30 SLA 2016.]
          (B) does not include
               (i) a vessel license issued under AS 16.05.490 or 16.05.530;

               (ii) a business license issued under AS 43.70;

               (iii) an entry permit or interim-use permit issued under AS 16.43; or

               (iv) a driver’s license issued under AS 28.15;

     (3) “licensee” means a person holding a license or applying to renew a license;

     (4) “licensing entity” means the state agency that issues or renews a license; in the case of a license issued or renewed by the Department of Commerce, Community, and Economic Development after an applicant’s qualifications are determined by another agency, “licensing entity” means the department;

     (5) “list” means the list of obligors and other persons compiled and maintained under (a) of this section;

     (6) “substantial compliance” regarding a support order or payment schedule means that, with respect to periodic payments required under a support order or a negotiated payment schedule under (g) of this section, whichever is applicable, the obligor has
          (A) no arrearage;

          (B) an arrearage in an amount that is not more than four times the monthly obligation under the support order or payment schedule; or

          (C) been determined by a court to be making the best efforts possible under the obligor’s circumstances to have no arrearages under any support order that requires periodic payments or under a negotiated payment schedule relating to child support.




Sec. 25.27.246. Adverse action against delinquent obligor’s driver’s license.
 (a) The agency shall compile and maintain a list of obligors who have a driver’s license, and either (1) are not in substantial compliance with a support order, or (2) whose names are required to be placed on the list under (p)(2) of this section. The agency may not include an obligor on the list unless the agency has sent to the obligor, at the obligor’s most recent address on file with the agency, written notice of the arrearages at least 60 days before placement on the list. The list must include the names, social security numbers, dates of birth, and last known addresses of the persons. The list shall be updated by the agency on a monthly basis.

 (b) The agency shall serve notice under (d) of this section to each person on the list that the person’s driver’s license will be suspended in 150 days, and will not be reissued or renewed the next time it is applied for if the person’s name is on the list at the time of the subsequent application, unless the licensee receives a release from the agency. The notice shall be considered given when delivered personally to the person or deposited in the United States mail addressed to the person’s last known mailing address on file with the agency.

 (c) If the licensee fails to obtain a release during the 150-day period following notice under (b) and (d) of this section or if the agency revokes a release of a person’s license under (n) or (o) of this section, the agency shall notify the department that the licensee’s driver’s license should be suspended and further renewals or applications should be denied until the agency sends the department a release for the licensee. Upon receiving the agency’s notice under this subsection, the department shall suspend the licensee’s driver’s license and may not issue or renew a driver’s license for the licensee until the department receives a release to do so from the agency. If a license is suspended or an application is denied under this section, money paid by the applicant or licensee may not be refunded by the department.

 (d) The notice under (b) of this section must include the address and telephone number of the agency and shall emphasize the necessity of obtaining a release from the agency as a condition for avoiding suspension or denial of the person’s driver’s license. The notice must also inform the licensee that, if a license is suspended or an application is denied under this section, money paid by the licensee will not be refunded by the department. The agency shall also develop a form that the licensee may use to request a review by the agency. A copy of this form shall be included with each notice sent under (b) of this section.

 (e) The agency shall establish review procedures consistent with this section to allow a licensee to have the underlying arrearages and relevant defenses investigated, to provide a licensee with information on the process of obtaining a modification of a support order, or to provide a licensee with assistance in the establishment of a payment schedule on arrearages if the circumstances warrant.

 (f) If a licensee wishes to challenge being included on the list, the licensee shall submit to the agency a written request for review within 30 days after the notice under (b) of this section was personally delivered or postmarked by using the form developed under (d) of this section. Within 30 days after receiving a written request for review, the agency shall inform the licensee in writing of the agency’s findings. The agency shall immediately send a release to the department and the licensee if any of the following conditions is met:
     (1) the licensee is found to be in substantial compliance with each support order applicable to the licensee or has negotiated an agreement with the agency for a payment schedule on arrearages and is in substantial compliance with the negotiated agreement;

     (2) the licensee has submitted a timely request for review to the agency, but the agency will be unable to complete the review and send notice of findings to the licensee in sufficient time for the licensee to file a timely request for judicial relief within the 150-day period before the licensee’s license will be suspended under (c) of this section; this paragraph applies only if the delay in completing the review process is not the result of the licensee’s failure to act in a reasonable, timely, and diligent manner upon receiving notice from the agency that the licensee’s driver’s license will be suspended in 150 days;

     (3) the licensee has, within 30 days after receiving the agency’s findings following a request for review under (2) of this subsection, filed and served a request for judicial relief under this section, but a resolution of that relief will not be made within the 150-day period before license suspension under (c) of this section; this paragraph applies only if the delay in completing the judicial relief process is not the result of the licensee’s failure to act in a reasonable, timely, and diligent manner upon receiving the agency’s notice of findings; or

     (4) the licensee has obtained a judicial finding of substantial compliance.

 (g) A licensee is required to act with diligence in responding to notices from the agency with the recognition that the person’s driver’s license will be suspended after 150 days or that a subsequent license will not be issued and that the agency and, where appropriate, the court must have time to act within that 150-day period or before the subsequent license is needed, as applicable. A licensee’s delay in acting, without good cause, that directly results in the inability of the agency to complete a review of the licensee’s request or the court to hear the request for judicial relief within the required period does not constitute the diligence required under this section that would justify the issuance of a release.

 (h) If the agency refuses to release the license under (f) of this section or the agency revokes a release under (n) or (o) of this section, the agency shall notify the licensee in writing that the licensee may request any or all of the following: (1) judicial relief from the agency’s decision not to issue a release or the agency’s decision to revoke a release under (n) or (o) of this section; (2) a judicial determination of substantial compliance; (3) a modification of the support order. The notice must also contain the name and address of the court in which the licensee may file the request for relief. The licensee shall comply with all statutes and rules of court implementing this section. This section does not limit a licensee’s authority under other law to request an order to show cause or notice of motion to modify a support order or to fix a payment schedule on arrearages accruing under a support order or to obtain a court finding of substantial compliance with a support order.

 (i) A request for judicial relief from the agency’s decision not to issue a release under (f) of this section or from the agency’s decision to revoke a release under (n) or (o) of this section must state the grounds on which relief is requested, and the judicial action shall be limited to those stated grounds. Judicial relief under this subsection is not an appeal and shall be governed by court rules adopted to implement this section. Unless otherwise provided by court rule, the court shall hold an evidentiary hearing within 20 calendar days after the filing of service on the opposing party. The court’s decision shall be limited to a determination of each of the following issues, as applicable:
     (1) whether there is a support order or a payment schedule on arrearages;

     (2) whether the petitioner is the obligor covered by the support order; and

     (3) whether the obligor is in substantial compliance with the support order or payment schedule.

 (j) If the court finds that the person requesting relief is in substantial compliance with the support order or payment schedule, the agency shall immediately send a release under (f) of this section to the department and the licensee.

 (k) If a licensee is in substantial compliance with a support order or payment schedule, the agency shall mail to the licensee and the department a release stating that the licensee is in substantial compliance. The receipt of a release shall serve to notify the licensee and the department that, for the purposes of this section, the licensee is in substantial compliance with the support order or payment schedule unless the agency
     (1) under (a) of this section, certifies subsequent to the issuance of a release that the licensee is once again not in substantial compliance with a support order; or

     (2) under (n), (o), or (p) of this section, revokes a release because the licensee is not in substantial compliance with a payment schedule negotiated under this section.

 (l) The process described in (f) of this section is the sole administrative remedy for contesting the suspension or the denial of a driver’s license under this section. The procedures specified in AS 28 or AS 44.62.330 — 44.62.630 do not apply to the suspension or failure to issue or renew a license under this section.

 (m) The agency and department, as appropriate, shall adopt regulations necessary to implement this section.

 (n) If the agency releases a license under (f)(2) or (3) of this section because the review could not be completed within the 150-day period, the review process, including any request for judicial relief, may be completed after the 150-day period. If, at the completion of the review process, the licensee is found not to be in substantial compliance with each support order applicable to the licensee and has not entered into a payment schedule under this section, the agency shall send to the department a revocation of the release previously sent to the department for that licensee. The agency shall send notice of the revocation to the licensee as provided in (h) of this section.

 (o) Except as provided in (p) of this section, if the licensee fails to be in substantial compliance with a payment schedule negotiated under this section, the agency shall send to the department a revocation of any release previously sent to the department for that licensee. The agency shall send notice of the revocation to the licensee as provided in (h) of this section.

 (p) If a licensee fails to be in substantial compliance with a payment schedule negotiated under this section but paid the monthly obligation under the payment schedule for at least two years immediately after the schedule was negotiated, the agency shall
     (1) revoke the release previously granted to the licensee under this section and notify the department and licensee that the release has been revoked; the licensee may not challenge the revocation of this release; upon receiving the agency’s notice under this paragraph, the department may not suspend the licensee’s driver’s license or refuse to issue or renew a driver’s license for the licensee unless the department subsequently receives a new notice to do so from the agency under (c) of this section;

     (2) initiate new proceedings against the licensee under this section by placing the licensee’s name on the list compiled under (a) of this section after following the procedures required under (a) of this section;

     (3) follow the procedures of this section with respect to the licensee as if it were the first time that the licensee’s name had been placed on the list compiled under (a) of this section, except that the agency may either negotiate a new payment schedule under (f)(1) of this section or seek to enforce the previously negotiated payment schedule.

 (q) In this section,
     (1) “department” means the Department of Administration;

     (2) “driver’s license” or “license” means a driver’s license, as defined in AS 28.90.990;

     (3) “licensee” means a person holding or requesting a driver’s license;

     (4) “list” means the list of obligors and other persons compiled and maintained under (a) of this section;

     (5) “substantial compliance” regarding a support order or payment schedule means that, with respect to periodic payments required under a support order or a negotiated payment schedule under (f) of this section, whichever is applicable, the obligor has
          (A) no arrearage;

          (B) an arrearage in an amount that is not more than four times the monthly obligation under the support order or payment schedule; or

          (C) been determined by a court to be making the best efforts possible under the obligor’s circumstances to have no arrearages under any support order that requires periodic payments or under a negotiated payment schedule relating to child support.




Sec. 25.27.250. Order to withhold and deliver.
 (a) Without prior notice to the obligor, the agency may issue to any person, including an entity, political subdivision, or state agency, an order to withhold and deliver property under this section; the order may be issued
     (1) immediately upon issuance of an income withholding order that provides for immediate income withholding under AS 25.27.062(a);

     (2) immediately after an arrearage occurs under a support order described in AS 25.27.150(a);

     (3) at the expiration of 30 days after the date of service of a notice and finding of financial responsibility under AS 25.27.160; or

     (4) at the expiration of 30 days after service of a decision establishing paternity and financial responsibility under AS 25.27.165.

 (b) All real or personal property belonging to the obligor is subject to an order to withhold and deliver, including, but not limited to, earnings that are due, owing, or belonging to the debtor. In calculating the amount to be withheld and delivered under an order issued under this section, the agency shall give credit to the obligor for the cost to the obligor of medical and dental insurance for the children and educational payments for the children to the extent that the insurance coverage and educational payments are required in the applicable child support order and are actually paid for by the obligor.

 (c) The agency may issue an order to withhold and deliver when it has reason to believe that there is in the possession of a person, political subdivision, or department of the state property that is due, owing, or belonging to the obligor.

 (d) The order to withhold and deliver shall be served upon the person, political subdivision, or department of the state possessing the property electronically or in the manner provided for service of liens under AS 25.27.240. The order must state the amount of the obligor’s liability and must state in summary the terms of AS 25.27.260 and 25.27.270.

 (e) Any person, political subdivision, or department of the state served with an order to withhold and deliver is required to make true answers to inquiries contained in the order under oath and in writing within 14 days after service of the order, and is further required to answer all inquiries subsequently put.

 (f) If a person, political subdivision, or department of the state upon whom service of an order to withhold and deliver has been made possesses property due, owing, or belonging to the obligor, that person, subdivision, or department shall withhold the property immediately upon receipt of the order and shall deliver the property to the agency (1) if the property is earnings of an employee who is subject to a child support order being enforced by the agency, within seven business days after the amount would, but for this section, have been paid or credited to the employee; or (2) in the case of all other property, within 14 business days after the date of service of the order. The agency shall hold property delivered under this subsection in trust for application against the liability of the obligor under AS 25.27.062, 25.27.120, or 25.27.160 or for return, without interest, depending on final determination of liability or nonliability under this chapter. The agency may accept a good and sufficient bond to secure payment of past, present, and future support conditioned upon final determination of liability in lieu of requiring delivery of property under this subsection.

 (g) Delivery to the agency of the money or other property due, owing, or belonging to the obligor shall satisfy the requirement of the order to withhold and deliver. Delivery of money due and owing to the obligor under any contract of employment, express or implied, or held by any person, political subdivision, or department of the state, and subject to withdrawal by the obligor, shall be delivered by remittance payable to the order of the agency.

 (h) [Repealed, § 148(a) ch 87 SLA 1997.]
 (i) An order to withhold and deliver under this section has priority over all other attachments, executions, garnishments, or other legal process brought under state law against the same property unless otherwise ordered by the court. Exemptions under AS 09.38 do not apply to proceedings to enforce the payment of child support under AS 25.27.230 — 25.27.270; however, net disposable earnings are exempt from execution as provided in 15 U.S.C. 1673(b). In this subsection, “net disposable earnings” has the meaning given in 15 U.S.C. 1672.

 (j) A person, political subdivision, or department that fails to comply with an order to withhold and deliver served under this subsection is subject to penalties under AS 25.27.260. A person, political subdivision, or department may, for each payment made under an order to withhold and deliver, deduct $5 from other wages or salary owed to the obligor.




Sec. 25.27.253. Earnings subject to an order or lien.
 (a) A person, political subdivision, or department of the state shall withhold the earnings of the obligor subject to an order or lien at each succeeding interval of payment until the entire amount of the debt stated in the order to withhold and deliver has been withheld.

 (b) An order to withhold and deliver issued to the Department of Revenue remains in effect throughout the calendar year in which it is served. That order applies to any tax refund or other disbursements to which the obligor is entitled even if the tax refund or disbursement is issued more than 30 days after service of the order.




Sec. 25.27.255. Disposition of payments under income withholding orders.
 (a) The agency shall pay to the obligee all money recovered by the agency from the obligor under an income withholding order except for court costs and money assigned to the agency under AS 25.27.120 — 25.27.130. However, if there is more than one income withholding order under this chapter against an obligor, the agency shall allocate amounts available for withholding in a manner that gives priority to current support up to the limits imposed under 15 U.S.C. 1673(b) (sec. 303(b), Consumer Credit Protection Act). Notwithstanding the priority given to current support, the agency shall establish procedures for allocation of support among obligees so that in no case will the allocation result in a withholding order for one obligee not being implemented.

 (b) [Repealed, § 34 ch 7 FSSLA 1994.]
 (c) [Repealed, § 34 ch 7 FSSLA 1994.]




Sec. 25.27.260. Civil liability upon failure to comply with an order or lien.
 (a) If a person, political subdivision, or department of the state (1) fails to make an answer to an order to withhold and deliver within the time prescribed in AS 25.27.250; (2) fails or refuses to deliver property in accordance with an order issued under AS 25.27.250; (3) pays over, releases, sells, transfers, or conveys real property subject to a lien recorded under AS 25.27.230 to or for the benefit of the obligor or any other person; (4) fails or refuses to surrender upon demand property attached; or (5) intentionally fails or refuses to honor an assignment of wages or an income withholding order under AS 25.27.062 that was served by the agency through personal service by a process server or through certified mail, return receipt requested, the person, political subdivision, or department of the state is liable to the agency in an amount equal to 100 percent of the amount constituting the basis of the lien, order to withhold and deliver, attachment, or withholding of wages or income, together with costs, interest, and reasonable attorney fees.

 (b) A person, political subdivision, or department of the state that intentionally fails or refuses to honor a properly served income withholding order under AS 25.27.062 that is not being enforced by the agency is liable to the obligee in an amount equal to 100 percent of the amount ordered to be withheld together with costs, interest, and reasonable attorney fees.




Sec. 25.27.265. Method of service; notification of change of address.
 (a) Except as otherwise provided under this chapter, when a notice, paper, or other document is required by this chapter to be given or served upon a person by the agency, the notice, paper, or other document may be served as required by Rule 5, Alaska Rules of Civil Procedure or any other method permitted by law.

 (b) Each party to a paternity or child support proceeding shall file with the tribunal and inform the agency of the party’s name, location, social security number, residential and mailing addresses, telephone number, and driver’s license number, as well as the name, address, and telephone number of any employer of the party. If a change in this information occurs, the party shall immediately notify the tribunal and the agency and provide updated information.

 (c) Notwithstanding (a) of this section, if a tribunal finds that the agency has made diligent efforts to give or serve a notice, paper, or other document required by this chapter, the tribunal may order that service in any subsequent child support enforcement effort by the agency may be given upon the party by sending the document by first class mail to the party’s most recent mailing address on file with the agency.




Sec. 25.27.270. Judicial relief from administrative execution.
Any person against whose property a lien has been recorded under AS 25.27.230 or an order to withhold and deliver served in accordance with AS 25.27.250 may apply for relief to the superior court.

Sec. 25.27.273. Reporting of payment information concerning delinquent obligors.
 (a) The agency may provide to credit bureaus or lending institutions of any kind information about delinquent support owed by obligors. The information provided must consist solely of the payment history of the obligor.

 (b) Upon an obligor’s payment of delinquent support, the agency shall immediately notify all credit bureaus and lending institutions that were furnished information about the obligor under (a) of this section that the obligor is no longer delinquent.




Sec. 25.27.275. Nondisclosure of information in exceptional circumstances.
Upon a finding, which may be made ex parte, that the health, safety, or liberty of a party or child would be unreasonably put at risk by the disclosure of identifying information, or if an existing order so provides, a tribunal shall order that the address of the party or child or other identifying information not be disclosed in a pleading or other document filed in a proceeding under this chapter. A person aggrieved by an order of nondisclosure issued under this section that is based on an ex parte finding is entitled on request to a formal hearing, within 30 days of when the order was issued, at which the person may contest the order.

Sec. 25.27.278. Payments not disbursed.
Support payments collected and held by the agency for seven years without disbursal shall be returned to the obligor.

Sec. 25.27.279. Voiding of fraudulent transfers made to avoid payment of child support.
In addition to the rights provided in AS 09.25.060, if a transfer of personal or real property is made by an obligor without immediate delivery and the actual continuing change of possession of the property transferred, the transfer of the property is presumed prima facie to be fraud against creditors for child support of the obligor who transferred the property and subsequent purchasers in good faith and for valuable consideration during the time the property remains in the possession of the obligor who made the transfer, except that retention of possession in good faith and current course of trade by a merchant seller for a commercially reasonable time after the sale or identification is not fraudulent. Nothing contained in this section supersedes the provisions of AS 45.01 — AS 45.08, AS 45.12, AS 45.14, and AS 45.29 (Uniform Commercial Code).

Sec. 25.27.280. Severability: Alternative when method of notification held invalid.
If any provision of this chapter or the application of it to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity shall not affect other provisions or applications of this chapter which can be given effect without the invalid provision or application, and to this end the provisions of this chapter are severable. If any method of notification provided for in this chapter is held invalid, service as provided for by the laws of the state for service of process in a civil action shall be substituted for the method held invalid.

Sec. 25.27.300. Requests pertaining to remarriage.
The agency shall, at the request of a person who is an obligor under a support order enforced by the agency that includes support for a parent with whom a child is living or at the request of a child support enforcement agency of another jurisdiction that is enforcing a support order that includes support for a parent with whom a child is living, request the Bureau of Vital Statistics to disclose to the agency whether the parent has remarried in the state after a specified date if the support order provides that the support for the parent is payable only until the parent remarries. The agency may disclose to the obligor or other child support enforcement agency, as applicable, the information provided by the bureau.

Sec. 25.27.320. Interest on agency return of certain overpayments.
 (a) If the agency disburses money to an obligor because the agency made an error and mistakenly required the obligor to overpay under a support order enforced by the agency, the agency shall include interest with the disbursement at the rate of six percent a year. The interest accrues from the date the payment at issue was received by the agency, regardless of when the payment is determined to be an overpayment.

 (b) The provisions of (a) of this section do not apply to situations where the agency is ordered by a court to return money to an obligor based on the obligor’s being the prevailing party in a court action.




Sec. 25.27.900. Definitions.
In this chapter,
     (1) “agency” means the child support services agency;

     (2) “arrearage” means a debt that is past due and equal to at least one monthly obligation under the support order for one or more of the following:
          (A) monetary support;

          (B) cash medical support;

          (C) payment of health care costs or maintenance of health insurance;

          (D) reimbursement of related costs;

          (E) payment of attorney fees and legal costs and other fees;

          (F) penalty, interest, and other relief as required by a support order;

     (3) “assistance under AS 47.27,” “assistance granted under AS 47.27,” or “assistance paid on behalf of the obligee under AS 47.27” means cash assistance provided under AS 47.27 (Alaska temporary assistance program);

     (4) “business day” means a day on which state government offices are open for regular business;

     (5) “department” means the Department of Revenue;

     (6) “duty of support” includes a duty of support imposed or imposable by law, by a court order, decree, or judgment, or by a finding or decision rendered under this chapter whether interlocutory or final, whether incidental to a proceeding for divorce, legal separation, separate maintenance, or otherwise, and includes the duty to pay arrearages of support past due and unpaid together with penalties and interest on arrearages imposed under AS 25.27.020(a)(2)(B) and the duty to provide health care coverage in compliance with AS 25.27.060(c) and 25.27.063;

     (7) “earnings” includes income from any form of periodic payment due to an individual, regardless of source; the gain derived from the investment of capital, from labor, or from a combination of investment and labor; and the interest on any of this income; in this paragraph, “periodic payment” includes wages, salaries, commissions, bonuses, workers’ compensation, disability benefits, and payments under a pension or retirement program;

     (8) “employer” means an individual or entity within the meaning given that term in 26 U.S.C. 3401(d); “employer” includes a governmental entity or a labor organization;

     (9) “high-volume automated administrative enforcement” means the use of automatic data processing to search various state data bases, including license records, employment service data, and state new-hire registries, to determine whether information is available regarding a parent who owes a child support obligation;

     (10) “obligee” means a person to whom a duty of support is owed;

     (11) “obligor” means a person owing a duty of support;

     (12) “support order” means any judgment, decree, or order that is issued by a tribunal for the support and maintenance of a child or of a parent with whom the child is living; “support order” includes a judgment, decree, or order
          (A) on behalf of a child who has reached the age of majority if the judgment, decree, or order was lawfully issued; and

          (B) for any or all of the following:
               (i) monetary support, including arrearages;

               (ii) payment of health care costs or maintenance of health insurance;

               (iii) payment of cash medical support;

               (iv) reimbursement of related costs;

               (v) payment of attorney fees and legal costs and other fees; or

               (vi) penalty, interest, and other relief as required by a tribunal;

     (13) “tribunal” means a court, administrative agency, or quasi-judicial entity authorized to establish, enforce, or modify support orders or to determine parentage.




Article 1. Jurisdiction.

Chapter 30. Uniform Child Custody Jurisdiction and Enforcement Act.

Secs. 25.30.010 — 25.35.230. Uniform Child Custody Jurisdiction Act. [Repealed, § 4 ch 133 SLA 1998.]
Sec. 25.30.300. Initial child custody jurisdiction.
 (a) Except as otherwise provided in AS 25.30.330, a court of this state has jurisdiction to make an initial child custody determination only if
     (1) this state is the home state of the child on the date of the commencement of the proceeding;

     (2) this state was the home state of the child within six months before the commencement of the proceeding and the child is absent from this state but a parent or person acting as a parent continues to live in this state;

     (3) a court of another state does not have jurisdiction under provisions substantially similar to (1) or (2) of this subsection, or a court of the home state of the child has declined to exercise jurisdiction on the ground that this state is the more appropriate forum under provisions substantially similar to AS 25.30.360 or 25.30.370, and
          (A) the child and the child’s parents, or the child and at least one parent or a person acting as a parent, have a significant connection with this state other than mere physical presence; and

          (B) substantial evidence is available in this state concerning the child’s care, protection, training, and personal relationships;

     (4) all courts having jurisdiction under the criteria specified in (1) — (3) of this subsection have declined to exercise jurisdiction on the ground that a court of this state is the more appropriate forum to determine the custody of the child under provisions substantially similar to AS 25.30.360 or 25.30.370; or

     (5) no court of another state would have jurisdiction under the criteria specified in (1) — (4) of this subsection.

 (b) The provisions of (a) of this section are the exclusive jurisdictional bases for making a child custody determination by a court of this state.

 (c) Physical presence of or personal jurisdiction over a party or a child is not necessary or sufficient to make a child custody determination.




Sec. 25.30.310. Exclusive, continuing jurisdiction.
 (a) Except as otherwise provided in AS 25.30.330, a court of this state that has made a child custody determination consistent with AS 25.30.300 or 25.30.320 has exclusive, continuing jurisdiction over the determination until
     (1) a court of this state determines that neither the child, the child and one parent, nor the child and a person acting as a parent have a significant connection with this state and that substantial evidence is no longer available in this state concerning the child’s care, protection, training, and personal relationships; or

     (2) a court of this state or a court of another state determines that neither the child, nor a parent, nor a person acting as a parent presently resides in this state.

 (b) A court of this state that has made a child custody determination and does not have exclusive, continuing jurisdiction under this section may modify that determination only if it has jurisdiction to make an initial determination under AS 25.30.300.




Sec. 25.30.320. Jurisdiction to modify determination.
Except as otherwise provided in AS 25.30.330, a court of this state may not modify a child custody determination made by a court of another state unless a court of this state has jurisdiction to make an initial determination under AS 25.30.300(a)(1), (2), or (3) and
     (1) the court of the other state determines it no longer has exclusive, continuing jurisdiction under provisions substantially similar to AS 25.30.310 or that a court of this state would be a more convenient forum under provisions substantially similar to AS 25.30.360; or

     (2) a court of this state or a court of the other state determines that neither the child, nor a parent, nor a person acting as a parent presently resides in the other state.




Sec. 25.30.330. Temporary emergency jurisdiction.
 (a) A court of this state has temporary emergency jurisdiction if the child is present in this state and the child has been abandoned or it is necessary in an emergency to protect the child because the child, or a sibling or parent of the child, is subjected to or threatened with mistreatment or abuse.

 (b) If there is no previous child custody determination that is entitled to be enforced under this chapter and if a child custody proceeding has not been commenced in a court of a state having jurisdiction under provisions substantially similar to AS 25.30.300 — 25.30.320, a child custody determination made under this section remains in effect until an order is obtained from a court of a state having jurisdiction under AS 25.30.300 — 25.30.320 or provisions substantially similar to AS 25.30.300 — 25.30.320. If a child custody proceeding has not been or is not commenced in a court of a state having jurisdiction under AS 25.30.300 — 25.30.320 or provisions substantially similar to AS 25.30.300 — 25.30.320, a child custody determination made under this section becomes a final determination if it so provides and this state becomes the home state of the child.

 (c) If there is a previous child custody determination that is entitled to be enforced under this chapter or a child custody proceeding has been commenced in a court of a state having jurisdiction under AS 25.30.300 — 25.30.320 or provisions substantially similar to AS 25.30.300 — 25.30.320, an order issued by a court of this state under this section must specify in the order a period that the court considers adequate to allow the person seeking an order to obtain an order from the state having jurisdiction under AS 25.30.300 — 25.30.320 or provisions substantially similar to AS 25.30.300 — 25.30.320. The order issued in this state remains in effect until an order is obtained from the other state within the period specified or the period expires.

 (d) A court of this state that has been asked to make a child custody determination under this section, on being informed that a child custody proceeding has been commenced in, or a child custody determination has been made by, a court of a state having jurisdiction under AS 25.30.300 — 25.30.320 or provisions substantially similar to AS 25.30.300 — 25.30.320 shall immediately communicate with the other court. A court of this state that is exercising jurisdiction under AS 25.30.300 — 25.30.320, on being informed that a child custody proceeding has been commenced in, or a child custody determination has been made by, a court of another state under a statute substantially similar to this section, shall immediately communicate with the court of that state to resolve the emergency, protect the safety of the parties and the child, and determine a period for the duration of the temporary order.




Sec. 25.30.340. Notice; opportunity to be heard; joinder.
 (a) Before a child custody determination is made under this chapter, notice and an opportunity to be heard in accordance with AS 25.30.840 shall be given to all persons entitled to notice under the law of this state as in child custody proceedings between residents of this state, a parent whose parental rights have not been previously terminated, and a person having physical custody of the child.

 (b) This chapter does not govern the enforceability of a child custody determination made without notice or an opportunity to be heard.

 (c) The obligation to join a party and the right to intervene as a party in a child custody proceeding under this chapter are governed by the law of this state as in child custody proceedings between residents of this state.




Sec. 25.30.350. Simultaneous proceedings.
 (a) Except as otherwise provided in AS 25.30.330, a court of this state may not exercise its jurisdiction under AS 25.30.300 — 25.30.390 if, at the time of the commencement of the proceeding, a proceeding concerning the custody of the child had been previously commenced in a court of another state having jurisdiction substantially in conformity with this chapter unless the proceeding has been terminated or is stayed by the court of the other state because a court of this state is a more convenient forum under provisions substantially similar to AS 25.30.360.

 (b) Except as otherwise provided in AS 25.30.330, a court of this state, before hearing a child custody proceeding, shall examine the court documents and other information supplied by the parties under AS 25.30.380. If the court determines that a child custody proceeding has been commenced in a court in another state having jurisdiction substantially in accordance with this chapter, the court of this state shall stay its proceeding and communicate with the court of the other state. If the court of the state having jurisdiction substantially in accordance with this chapter does not determine that the court of this state is a more appropriate forum, the court of this state shall dismiss the proceeding.

 (c) In a proceeding to modify a child custody determination, a court of this state shall determine whether a proceeding to enforce the determination has been commenced in another state. If a proceeding to enforce a child custody determination has been commenced in another state, the court may
     (1) stay the proceeding for modification pending the entry of an order of a court of the other state enforcing, staying, denying, or dismissing the proceeding for enforcement;

     (2) enjoin the parties from continuing with the proceeding for enforcement; or

     (3) proceed with the modification under conditions it considers appropriate.




Sec. 25.30.360. Inconvenient forum.
 (a) A court of this state that has jurisdiction under this chapter to make a child custody determination may decline to exercise its jurisdiction at any time if it determines that it is an inconvenient forum under the circumstances and that a court of another state is a more appropriate forum. The issue of inconvenient forum may be raised on motion of a party, the court’s own motion, or request of another court.

 (b) Before determining whether it is an inconvenient forum, a court of this state shall consider whether it is appropriate for a court of another state to exercise jurisdiction. For this purpose, the court shall allow the parties to submit information and shall consider all relevant factors, including
     (1) whether domestic violence has occurred and is likely to continue in the future and which state could best protect the parties and the child;

     (2) the length of time the child has resided outside this state;

     (3) the distance between the court in this state and the court in the state that would assume jurisdiction;

     (4) the relative financial circumstances of the parties;

     (5) an agreement of the parties as to which state should assume jurisdiction;

     (6) the nature and location of the evidence required to resolve the pending litigation, including testimony of the child;

     (7) the ability of the court of each state to decide the issue expeditiously and the procedures necessary to present the evidence; and

     (8) the familiarity of the court of each state with the facts and issues in the pending litigation.

 (c) If a court of this state determines that it is an inconvenient forum and that a court of another state is a more appropriate forum, it shall stay the proceedings on condition that a child custody proceeding be promptly commenced in another designated state and may impose any other condition the court considers just and proper.

 (d) A court of this state may decline to exercise its jurisdiction under this chapter if a child custody determination is incidental to an action for divorce or another proceeding while still retaining jurisdiction over the divorce or other proceeding.




Sec. 25.30.370. Jurisdiction declined because of conduct.
 (a) Except as otherwise provided in AS 25.30.330, if a court of this state has jurisdiction under this chapter because a person invoking the jurisdiction has engaged in wrongful conduct, the court shall decline to exercise its jurisdiction unless
     (1) the parents and all persons acting as parents have acquiesced in the exercise of jurisdiction;

     (2) a court of the state otherwise having jurisdiction under AS 25.30.300 — 25.30.320 determines that this state is a more appropriate forum under provisions substantially similar to AS 25.30.360; or

     (3) no court of another state would have jurisdiction under the criteria specified in AS 25.30.300 — 25.30.320.

 (b) If a court of this state declines to exercise its jurisdiction under (a) of this section, it may fashion an appropriate remedy to ensure the safety of the child and prevent a repetition of the wrongful conduct, including staying the proceeding, until a child custody proceeding is commenced in a court having jurisdiction under provisions substantially similar to AS 25.30.300 — 25.30.320.

 (c) If a court dismisses a petition or stays a proceeding because it declines to exercise its jurisdiction under (a) of this section, that court shall assess against the party seeking to invoke its jurisdiction necessary and reasonable expenses, including costs, communication expenses, attorney fees, investigative fees, expenses for witnesses, travel expenses, and child care during the course of the proceedings, unless the party against whom the assessment is sought establishes that the assessment would be clearly inappropriate. The court may not assess fees, costs, or expenses against this state unless authorized by law other than this chapter.




Sec. 25.30.380. Information to be submitted to court.
 (a) Subject to a contravening court order, in a child custody proceeding, each party, in its first pleading or in an attached affidavit, shall give information, if reasonably ascertainable, under oath as to the child’s present address or whereabouts, the places where the child has lived during the last five years, and the names and present addresses of the persons with whom the child has lived during that period. The pleading or affidavit must state whether the party
     (1) has participated, as a party or witness or in another capacity, in another proceeding concerning the custody of or visitation with the child and, if so, identify the court, the case number, and the date of the child custody determination, if any;

     (2) knows of a proceeding that could affect the current proceeding, including a proceeding for enforcement and a proceeding relating to domestic violence, protective orders, termination of parental rights, and adoptions and, if so, identify the court, the case number, and the nature of the proceeding; and

     (3) knows the names and addresses of a person not a party to the proceeding who has physical custody of the child or claims rights of legal custody or physical custody of, or visitation with, the child and, if so, the names and addresses of those persons.

 (b) If the information required by (a) of this section is not furnished, the court, on motion of a party or its own motion, may stay the proceeding until the information is furnished.

 (c) If the declaration as to an item described in (a)(1) — (3) of this section is in the affirmative, the declarant shall give additional information under oath as required by the court. The court may examine the parties under oath as to details of the information furnished and other matters pertinent to the court’s jurisdiction and the disposition of the case.

 (d) Each party has a continuing duty to inform the court of a proceeding in this state or in another state that could affect the current proceeding.

 (e) If a party alleges in an affidavit or a pleading under oath that the health, safety, or liberty of a party or child would be jeopardized by disclosure of identifying information, the information shall be sealed and may not be disclosed to the other party or the public unless the court orders the disclosure to be made after a hearing in which the court takes into consideration the health, safety, or liberty of the party or child and determines that the disclosure is in the interest of justice.




Sec. 25.30.390. Appearance of parties and child.
 (a) In a child custody proceeding in this state, the court may order a party to the proceeding who is in this state to appear before the court personally with or without the child. The court may order a person who is in this state and who has physical custody or control of the child to appear in person with the child.

 (b) If a party to a child custody proceeding whose presence is desired by the court is outside this state, the court may order that a notice given under AS 25.30.840 include a statement directing the party to appear in person with or without the child and informing the party that failure to appear may result in a decision adverse to the party.

 (c) The court may enter orders necessary to ensure the safety of the child and of a person ordered to appear under this section.

 (d) If a party to a child custody proceeding who is outside this state is directed to appear under (b) of this section or desires to appear in person before the court with or without the child, the court may require another party to pay reasonable and necessary travel and other expenses of the party so appearing and of the child.




Article 2. Enforcement.
Sec. 25.30.400. Enforcement under the Hague Convention.
Under AS 25.30.400 — 25.30.590, a court of this state may enforce an order for the return of a child made under the Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction as if the order were a child custody determination.

Sec. 25.30.410. Duty to enforce.
 (a) A court of this state shall recognize and enforce a child custody determination of a court of another state if the court of the other state exercised jurisdiction in substantial conformity with this chapter or the determination was made under factual circumstances meeting the jurisdictional standards of this chapter and the determination has not been modified in accordance with this chapter.

 (b) A court of this state may use a remedy available under other law of this state to enforce a child custody determination made by a court of another state. The procedure provided by AS 25.30.400 — 25.30.590 does not affect the availability of other remedies to enforce a child custody determination.




Sec. 25.30.420. Temporary visitation.
 (a) A court of this state that does not have jurisdiction to modify a child custody determination may issue a temporary order enforcing
     (1) a visitation schedule made by a court of another state; or

     (2) the visitation provisions of a child custody determination of another state that does not provide for a specific visitation schedule.

 (b) If a court of this state makes an order under (a)(2) of this section, it shall specify in the order a period that it considers adequate to allow the petitioner to obtain an order from a court having jurisdiction under the criteria specified in AS 25.30.300 — 25.30.390. The order remains in effect until an order is obtained from the other court or the period expires.




Sec. 25.30.430. Registration of child custody determination.
 (a) A child custody determination issued by a court of another state may be registered in this state, with or without a simultaneous request for enforcement, by sending to the appropriate court in this state
     (1) a letter or other document requesting registration;

     (2) two copies, including one certified copy, of the determination sought to be registered and a statement, under penalty of perjury, that to the best knowledge and belief of the person seeking registration the order has not been modified; and

     (3) except as otherwise provided in AS 25.30.380, the name and address of the person seeking registration and the parent or person acting as a parent who has been awarded custody or visitation in the child custody determination sought to be registered.

 (b) On receipt of the documents required by (a) of this section, the registering court shall
     (1) cause the determination to be filed as a foreign judgment, together with one copy of any accompanying documents and information, regardless of their form; and

     (2) serve notice on the persons named under (a)(3) of this section and provide them with an opportunity to contest the registration under this section.

 (c) The notice required by (b)(2) of this section must state that
     (1) a registered determination is enforceable as of the date of the registration in the same manner as a determination issued by a court of this state;

     (2) a hearing to contest the validity of the registered determination must be requested within 20 days after service of notice; and

     (3) failure to contest the registration will result in confirmation of the child custody determination and preclude further contest of that determination with respect to a matter that could have been asserted.

 (d) A person seeking to contest the validity of a registered order must request a hearing within 20 days after service of the notice. At that hearing, the court shall confirm the registered order unless the person contesting registration establishes that
     (1) the issuing court did not have jurisdiction under provisions substantially similar to AS 25.30.300 — 25.30.390;

     (2) the child custody determination sought to be registered has been vacated, stayed, or modified by a court having jurisdiction to do so under provisions substantially similar to AS 25.30.300 — 25.30.390; or

     (3) the person contesting registration was entitled to notice, but notice was not given in accordance with provisions substantially similar to AS 25.30.840 in the proceedings before the court that issued the order for which registration is sought.

 (e) If a timely request for a hearing to contest the validity of the registration is not made, the registration is confirmed as a matter of law, and the person requesting registration and all persons served must be notified of the confirmation.

 (f) Confirmation of a registered order, whether by operation of law or after notice and hearing, precludes further contest of the order with respect to a matter that could have been asserted at the time of registration.




Sec. 25.30.440. Enforcement of registered determination.
 (a) A court of this state may grant relief normally available under the law of this state to enforce a registered child custody determination made by a court of another state.

 (b) A court of this state shall recognize and enforce, but may not modify except in accordance with AS 25.30.300 — 25.30.390, a registered child custody determination of a court of another state.




Sec. 25.30.450. Simultaneous proceedings.
If a proceeding for enforcement under AS 25.30.400 — 25.30.590 is commenced in a court of this state and the court determines that a proceeding to modify the determination is pending in a court of another state having jurisdiction to modify the determination under provisions substantially similar to AS 25.30.400 — 25.30.590, the enforcing court shall immediately communicate with the modifying court. The proceeding for enforcement continues unless the enforcing court, after consultation with the modifying court, stays or dismisses the proceeding.

Sec. 25.30.460. Expedited enforcement of child custody determination.
 (a) A petition under AS 25.30.400 — 25.30.590 must be verified. A certified copy, or a copy of a certified copy, of the orders sought to be enforced and of an order, if any, confirming registration must be attached to the petition.

 (b) A petition for enforcement of a child custody determination must state
     (1) whether the court that issued the determination identified the jurisdictional basis it relied on in exercising jurisdiction and, if so, what the basis was;

     (2) whether the determination for which enforcement is sought has been vacated, stayed, or modified by a court whose decision must be enforced under this chapter and, if so, must identify the court, the case number, and the nature of the proceeding;

     (3) whether a proceeding has been commenced that could affect the current proceeding, including proceedings relating to domestic violence, protective orders, termination of parental rights, and adoptions and, if so, must identify the court, the case number, and the nature of the proceeding;

     (4) the present physical address of the child and the respondent, if known;

     (5) whether relief in addition to the immediate physical custody of the child and attorney fees is sought, including a request for assistance from law enforcement officials and, if so, the relief sought; and

     (6) if the child custody determination has been registered and confirmed under AS 25.30.430, the date and place of registration.

 (c) On the filing of a petition, the court shall issue an order directing the respondent to appear in person with or without the child at a hearing and may enter an order necessary to ensure the safety of the parties and the child. The hearing must be held on the next judicial day after service of the order unless that date is impossible. In that event, the court shall hold the hearing on the first judicial day possible. The court may extend the date of hearing at the request of the petitioner.

 (d) An order issued under (c) of this section must state the time and place of the hearing and advise the respondent that, at the hearing, the court will order that the petitioner may take immediate physical custody of the child and the payment of fees, costs, and expenses under AS 25.30.500 and may schedule a hearing to determine whether further relief is appropriate unless the respondent appears and establishes that
     (1) the child custody determination has not been registered and confirmed under AS 25.30.430, and that
          (A) the issuing court did not have jurisdiction under provisions substantially similar to AS 25.30.300 — 25.30.390;

          (B) the child custody determination for which enforcement is sought has been vacated, stayed, or modified by a court having jurisdiction to do so under provisions substantially similar to AS 25.30.300 — 25.30.390; or

          (C) the respondent was entitled to notice, but notice was not given in accordance with provisions substantially similar to AS 25.30.840 in the proceedings before the court that issued the order for which enforcement is sought; or

     (2) the child custody determination for which enforcement is sought was registered and confirmed under AS 25.30.430 but has been vacated, stayed, or modified by a court having jurisdiction to do so under provisions substantially similar to AS 25.30.300 — 25.30.390.




Sec. 25.30.470. Service of petition and order.
Except as otherwise provided in AS 25.30.490, the petition and order shall be served, by a method authorized by the law of this state, on the respondent and a person who has physical custody of the child.

Sec. 25.30.480. Hearing and order.
 (a) Unless the court issues a temporary emergency order under AS 25.30.330, on a finding that a petitioner is entitled to immediate physical custody of the child, the court shall order that the petitioner may take immediate physical custody of the child unless the respondent establishes that
     (1) the child custody determination has not been registered and confirmed under AS 25.30.430 and that
          (A) the issuing court did not have jurisdiction under provisions substantially similar to AS 25.30.300 — 25.30.390;

          (B) the child custody determination for which enforcement is sought has been vacated, stayed, or modified by a court having jurisdiction to do so under AS 25.30.300 — 25.30.390 or provisions substantially similar to AS 25.30.300 — 25.30.390; or

          (C) the respondent was entitled to notice, but notice was not given in accordance with AS 25.30.840 or provisions substantially similar to AS 25.30.300 — 25.30.390 in the proceedings before the court that issued the order for which enforcement is sought; or

     (2) the child custody determination for which enforcement is sought was registered and confirmed under AS 25.30.430 but has been vacated, stayed, or modified by a court having jurisdiction to do so under AS 25.30.300 — 25.30.390 or provisions substantially similar to AS 25.30.300 — 25.30.390.

 (b) The court shall award the fees, costs, and expenses authorized under AS 25.30.500 and may grant additional relief, including a request for the assistance of law enforcement officials, and set a further hearing to determine whether additional relief is appropriate.

 (c) If a party called to testify refuses to answer on the ground that the testimony may be self-incriminating, the court may draw an adverse inference from the refusal.

 (d) A privilege against disclosure of communications between spouses and a defense of immunity based on the relationship of husband and wife or parent and child may not be invoked in a proceeding under AS 25.30.400 — 25.30.590.




Sec. 25.30.490. Warrant to take physical custody of child.
 (a) On the filing of a petition seeking enforcement of a child custody determination, the petitioner may file a verified application for the issuance of a warrant to take physical custody of the child if the child is imminently likely either to suffer serious physical harm or to be removed from this state.

 (b) If the court, on the testimony of the petitioner or other witness, finds that the child is imminently likely to suffer serious physical harm or to be removed from this state, it may issue a warrant to take physical custody of the child. The petition must be heard on the next judicial day after the warrant is executed unless that date is impossible. In that event, the court shall hold the hearing on the first judicial day possible. The application for the warrant must include the statements required for petitions under AS 25.30.460(b).

 (c) A warrant to take physical custody of a child must
     (1) recite the facts on which a conclusion of imminent serious physical harm or removal from the state is based;

     (2) direct law enforcement officers to take physical custody of the child immediately; and

     (3) provide for the placement of the child pending final relief.

 (d) The respondent must be served with the petition, warrant, and order immediately after the child is taken into physical custody.

 (e) A warrant to take physical custody of a child is enforceable throughout this state. If the court finds on the basis of the testimony of the petitioner or other witness that a less intrusive remedy is not effective, it may authorize law enforcement officers to enter private property to take physical custody of the child. If required by exigent circumstances, the court may authorize law enforcement officers to make a forcible entry at any hour.

 (f) The court may impose conditions on placement of a child to ensure the appearance of the child and the child’s custodian.




Sec. 25.30.500. Costs, fees, and expenses.
 (a) To the extent authorized by court rules, the court shall award the prevailing party, including a state, necessary and reasonable expenses incurred by or on behalf of the party, including costs, communication expenses, attorney fees, investigative fees, expenses for witnesses, travel expenses, and child care expenses incurred during the course of the proceedings, unless the party from whom costs, fees, or expenses are sought establishes that the award would be clearly inappropriate.

 (b) The court may not assess costs, fees, or expenses against a state unless authorized by law other than this chapter or by court rule.




Sec. 25.30.510. Recognition and enforcement.
A court of this state shall give full faith and credit to an order issued by another state consistent with this chapter if the order enforces a child custody determination by a court of another state unless the order has been vacated, stayed, or modified by a court having jurisdiction to do so under AS 25.30.300 — 25.30.390 or provisions substantially similar to AS 25.30.300 — 25.30.390.

Sec. 25.30.520. Appeals.
An appeal taken from a final order in a proceeding under AS 25.30.400 — 25.30.590 shall be given calendar priority to the extent allowed for other civil appellate cases and shall be handled expeditiously. Unless the court enters a temporary emergency order under AS 25.30.330, the enforcing court may not stay an order enforcing a child custody determination pending appeal.

Sec. 25.30.590. Definitions.
In AS 25.30.400 — 25.30.590,
     (1) “petitioner” means a person who seeks enforcement of an order for the return of the child under the Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction or enforcement of a child custody determination;

     (2) “respondent” means a person against whom a proceeding has been commenced for enforcement of an order for the return of the child under the Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction or enforcement of a child custody determination.




Article 3. Miscellaneous Provisions.
Sec. 25.30.800. Proceedings governed by other law.
 (a) This chapter does not govern an adoption proceeding or a proceeding pertaining to the authorization of emergency medical care for a child.

 (b) A child custody proceeding that pertains to an Indian child as defined in 25 U.S.C. 1901 — 1963 (Indian Child Welfare Act) is not subject to this chapter to the extent that it is governed by 25 U.S.C. 1901 — 1963 (Indian Child Welfare Act).




Sec. 25.30.810. International application of chapter.
 (a) A court of this state shall treat a foreign country as if it were a state of the United States for the purpose of applying AS 25.30.400 — 25.30.590.

 (b) Except as provided in (c) of this section, a child custody determination made in a foreign country under factual circumstances in substantial conformity with the jurisdictional standards of this chapter shall be recognized and enforced under AS 25.30.400 — 25.30.590.

 (c) A court of this state is not required to apply this chapter to a child custody determination made in a foreign country when the child custody law of the other country violates fundamental principles of human rights.




Sec. 25.30.820. Effect of child custody determination.
A child custody determination made by a court of this state that had jurisdiction under this chapter binds all persons who have been served notice under Rule 4, Alaska Rules of Civil Procedure, who have been notified under AS 25.30.840, or who have submitted to the jurisdiction of the court, and who have been given an opportunity to be heard. As to those persons, the determination is conclusive as to all decided issues of law and fact except to the extent the determination is modified.

Sec. 25.30.830. Priority.
If a question of existence or exercise of jurisdiction under this chapter is raised in a child custody proceeding, the question, on request of a party, shall be given priority on the calendar and handled expeditiously.

Sec. 25.30.840. Notice to persons outside the state.
 (a) Notice required for the exercise of jurisdiction when a person is outside this state may be given under Rule 4, Alaska Rules of Civil Procedure, or in a manner prescribed by the law of the state in which the service is made. Notice shall be given in a manner reasonably calculated to give actual notice but may be by publication if other means are not effective.

 (b) Proof of service may be made under Rule 4, Alaska Rules of Civil Procedure, or in the manner prescribed by the law of the state in which the service is made.

 (c) Notice is not required for the exercise of jurisdiction with respect to a person who submits to the jurisdiction of the court.




Sec. 25.30.850. Appearance and limited immunity.
 (a) A party to a child custody proceeding, including a modification proceeding, or a petitioner or respondent in a proceeding to enforce or register a child custody determination is not subject to personal jurisdiction in this state for another proceeding or purpose solely because of having participated, or having been physically present for the purpose of participating, in the proceeding.

 (b) A party who is subject to personal jurisdiction in this state on a basis other than physical presence is not immune from service of process in this state. A party present in the state who is subject to the jurisdiction of another state is not immune from service of process allowable under the laws of that state.

 (c) The immunity granted by (a) of this section does not extend to civil litigation based on acts unrelated to the participation in a proceeding under this chapter committed by an individual while present in this state.




Sec. 25.30.860. Communication between courts.
 (a) A court of this state may communicate with a court in another state concerning a proceeding arising under this chapter.

 (b) The court may allow the parties to participate in the communication. If the parties are not able to participate in the communication, they shall be given the opportunity to present facts and legal arguments before a decision on jurisdiction is made.

 (c) Communication between courts on schedules, calendars, court records, and similar matters may occur without informing the parties, and a record need not be made of the communication.

 (d) Except as provided in (c) of this section, a record shall be made of a communication under this section. The parties must be informed promptly of the communication and granted access to the record.

 (e) In this section, “record” means information that is inscribed on a tangible medium or that is stored in an electronic or other medium and is retrievable in perceivable form.




Sec. 25.30.870. Taking testimony in another state.
 (a) In addition to other procedures available to a party, a party to a child custody proceeding may offer testimony of witnesses who are located in another state, including testimony of the parties and the child, by deposition or other means allowable in this state for testimony taken in another state. The court on its own motion may order that the testimony of a person be taken in another state and may prescribe the manner in which and the terms on which the testimony is taken.

 (b) A court of this state may permit an individual residing in another state to be deposed or to testify by telephone, audiovisual means, or other electronic means before a designated court or at another location in that state. A court of this state shall cooperate with courts of other states in designating an appropriate location for the deposition or testimony.

 (c) Documentary evidence transmitted from another state to a court of this state by technological means that do not produce an original writing may not be excluded from evidence on an objection based on the means of transmission.




Sec. 25.30.880. Cooperation between courts; preservation of records.
 (a) A court of this state may request the appropriate court of another state to
     (1) hold an evidentiary hearing;

     (2) order a person to produce or give evidence under procedures of that state;

     (3) order that an evaluation be made with respect to the custody of a child involved in a pending proceeding;

     (4) forward to the court of this state a certified copy of the transcript of the record of the hearing, the evidence otherwise presented, and any evaluation prepared in compliance with the request; and

     (5) order a party to a child custody proceeding or a person having physical custody of the child to appear in the proceeding with or without the child.

 (b) On request of a court of another state, a court of this state may hold a hearing or enter an order described in (a) of this section.

 (c) Travel and other necessary and reasonable expenses incurred under (a) and (b) of this section may be assessed against the parties according to the law of this state.

 (d) A court of this state shall preserve the pleadings, orders, decrees, records of hearings, evaluations, and other pertinent records with respect to a child custody proceeding until the child attains 18 years of age. On appropriate request by a court or law enforcement official of another state, the court shall forward a certified copy of these records.




Article 4. General Provisions.
Sec. 25.30.900. Definitions. [Repealed, § 4 ch 133 SLA 1998.]
Sec. 25.30.901. Application and construction.
In applying and construing this chapter, consideration shall be given to the need to promote uniformity of the law with respect to its subject matter among states that enact laws substantially similar.

Sec. 25.30.903. Severability clause.
If a provision of this chapter or its application to a person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of this chapter that can be given effect without the invalid provision or application, and, to this end, the provisions of this chapter are severable.

Sec. 25.30.909. Definitions.
In this chapter,
     (1) “abandoned” means left without provision for reasonable and necessary care or supervision;

     (2) “child” means an individual who has not attained 18 years of age;

     (3) “child custody determination” means a judgment, decree, or other order of a court providing for the legal custody, physical custody, or visitation with respect to a child, including a permanent, temporary, initial, and modification order, except that the term does not include an order relating to child support or other monetary obligation of an individual;

     (4) “child custody proceeding” means a proceeding in which legal custody, physical custody, or visitation with respect to a child is an issue, including a proceeding for divorce, separation, neglect, abuse, dependency, guardianship, paternity, termination of parental rights, and protection from domestic violence in which the issue may appear, except that the term does not include a proceeding involving juvenile delinquency, contractual emancipation, or enforcement under AS 25.30.400 — 25.30.590 or provisions substantially similar to AS 25.30.400 — 25.30.590;

     (5) “commencement” means the filing of the first pleading in a proceeding;

     (6) “court” means an entity authorized under the law of a state to establish, enforce, or modify a child custody determination;

     (7) “home state” means the state in which a child lived with a parent or a person acting as a parent for at least six consecutive months, including any temporary absences of the child or parent or person acting as a parent, immediately before the commencement of a child custody proceeding, except that, in the case of a child who is less than six months of age, the term means the state in which the child lived from birth with any of the persons mentioned, including any temporary absences;

     (8) “initial determination” means the first child custody determination concerning a particular child;

     (9) “issuing court” means the court that makes a child custody determination for which enforcement is sought under this chapter;

     (10) “issuing state” means the state in which a child custody determination is made;

     (11) “modification” means a child custody determination that changes, replaces, supersedes, or is otherwise made after a previous determination concerning the same child, whether or not it is made by the court that made the previous determination;

     (12) “person” means a natural person, a corporation, a business trust, an estate, a trust, a partnership, a limited liability company, an association, a joint venture, a government or a governmental subdivision, an agency, an instrumentality, a public corporation, or any other legal or commercial entity;

     (13) “person acting as a parent” means a person, other than a parent, who
          (A) has physical custody of a child or has had physical custody for a period of six consecutive months, including temporary absence, within one year immediately before the commencement of a child custody proceeding; and

          (B) has been awarded legal custody by a court or claims a right to legal custody under the law of this state;

     (14) “physical custody” means the physical care and supervision of a child;

     (15) “state” means a state of the United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the United States Virgin Islands, or a territory or insular possession subject to the jurisdiction of the United States;

     (16) “warrant” means an order issued by a court authorizing law enforcement officers to take physical custody of a child.




Sec. 25.30.910. Short title.
This chapter may be cited as the Uniform Child Custody Jurisdiction and Enforcement Act.